RLC Damped Oscillator: Why Quicker to Zero in Critically Damped Case?

AI Thread Summary
In the discussion about critically damped versus overdamped oscillations, it is clarified that the critically damped case reaches zero more quickly due to the presence of an additional term in the overdamped solution. The solution for the critically damped case is Q(t) = A e^{-\alpha t}, while the overdamped case includes a term that decays more slowly, specifically Be^{(+P-\alpha)t}. This slower-decaying term in the overdamped case contributes to a longer time to reach zero compared to the critically damped case. The misunderstanding arises from overlooking this additional term in the overdamped solution. Overall, critically damped oscillations are indeed quicker to zero than overdamped ones.
Chen
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Hello,

On this page:
http://galileo.phys.virginia.edu/classes/152.mf1i.spring02/Oscillations.htm
It says (and shows) that in the case of a critically damped oscillation, it moves more quickly to zero than in the overdamped case.

I don't understand why. The solution to this circuit is:

Q(t) = A e^{(i\omega - \alpha )t}

Where \omega is the square root of some expression that depends on R and L. The critically damped case corresponds to \omega = 0, while the overdamped case corresponds to the case in which \omega is imaginary.

So in the critically damped case the solution is:

Q(t) = A e^{-\alpha t}

And in the overdamped case it is:

Q(t) = A e^{(-P - \alpha )t}

Where P is some positive number, assuming \omega = \sqrt{-P^2}. To my best understanding, the solution should move to zero quicker in the overdamped case. However, that's not the case, as I've seen on my webpages and read in many books.

Can someone please explain this?

Thanks,
Chen
 
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Yes, indeed. Thank you!

Chen
 
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