I'm not sure whether I understood rolling friction properly. First, I'll assume that both surface and the body are completely rigid (no deformations of body nor surface will happen, thus vector N won't be dislocated creating an opposite momentum). So, rolling friction (assuming there is friction between the body and surface) will only "act" if the velocity of any point on the body rotating is not the same in magnitude as the velocity of the center of the mass (motion including both rotating and translating) because then the contact point of the body and the surface is not equal to zero, meaning that the rolling friction will only "act" until those two speeds (velocities) hit the same value and that point of contact will not be moving. Few friends of mine said that the rolling friction is present at all times (assuming that there is friction between the body and surface), but that doesn't make sense to me because then there would be a ∑F≠0 and the body would've had an acceleration that would've slowed the motion of the CM down. So, where's the catch?