Rolling Motion of Ring, Disk, Sphere: tr<td<ts

AI Thread Summary
A ring, disk, and sphere of the same mass and radius roll down an inclined plane, with their moments of inertia affecting their acceleration and time to reach the bottom. The consensus is that the time taken for the ring (tr) is greater than that for the disk (td), which in turn is greater than that for the sphere (ts), leading to the conclusion tr > td > ts. The discussion highlights the relationship between torque, moment of inertia, and angular acceleration, clarifying that larger moments of inertia result in smaller accelerations and longer descent times. Participants emphasize the importance of understanding how moment of inertia is constant for a given shape and mass. The conversation concludes with a realization that smaller accelerations indeed lead to longer times for the objects to reach the bottom.
Avaron Cooper
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1. A ring , a disk and a sphere all of same mass and radius, with moments of inertia Ir, Id, Is respectively about their axes, roll down without slipping on an inclined plane from a given height. If the time taken for the ring, disk and sphere to reach the bottom of the plane are tr, td and ts respectively, then
1)tr<td<ts
2)tr=td=ts
3)tr>td>ts
4)tr>td=ts
5)tr>td<ts

Homework Equations


. torque=moment of inertia*angular acceleration

The Attempt at a Solution


I took the torque acting on the objects to be the same theefore moment of inertia to be indirectly proportional to angular acc.

Ir>Id>Is
therefore:
tr<td<ts

If anyone show where I went wrong, it'll be of great help.
 
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Avaron Cooper said:
I took the torque acting on the objects to be the same theefore moment of inertia to be indirectly proportional to angular acc.

Can you explain? The moment of inertia of an object is normally a constant that depends on the objects shape (among other things). For example if you spin up a flywheel it's moment of inertia doesn't change.
 
CWatters said:
Can you explain? The moment of inertia of an object is normally a constant that depends on the objects shape (among other things). For example if you spin up a flywheel it's moment of inertia doesn't change.
Since the radii of the objects are equal and their masses are equal, i took the torque acting on them to be equal.
 
CWatters said:
Can you explain? The moment of inertia of an object is normally a constant that depends on the objects shape (among other things). For example if you spin up a flywheel it's moment of inertia doesn't change.
therefore considering torque= I * Angular acc. , I took angular acc is indirectly proportional to I
 
Avaron Cooper said:
I took the torque acting on the objects to be the same theefore moment of inertia to be indirectly proportional to angular acc.
I think you meant to say "inversely proportional".

So if the accelerations are smaller for larger moments of inertia, what does that do to the time?
 
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paisiello2 said:
I think you meant to say "inversely proportional".

So if the accelerations are smaller for larger moments of inertia, what does that do to the time?
oh.. Stupid me.. Smaller accelerations means longer time.. Thank you very much!
 
:smile:
 
 
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paisiello2 said:

Thank you very much!
 
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