- #1
al_famky
- 29
- 0
sorry, this is is a general question about a conceptual definition I read in my textbook, i hope that's ok.
"an object that rolls without slipping at a constant velocity over a surface with friction experiences no frictional force"
is this true?
i understand that on a frictionless surface, the object wouldn't need any external force or torque to keep it rolling, but on a surface with friction, why would the same situation apply?
and, in addition, how does an object slip while it has angular velocity? does that mean that for every instant that a particle is in contact with the ground, it slides for an infinitesmall distance? I don't get how that could happen from a macroscopic view.
"an object that rolls without slipping at a constant velocity over a surface with friction experiences no frictional force"
is this true?
i understand that on a frictionless surface, the object wouldn't need any external force or torque to keep it rolling, but on a surface with friction, why would the same situation apply?
and, in addition, how does an object slip while it has angular velocity? does that mean that for every instant that a particle is in contact with the ground, it slides for an infinitesmall distance? I don't get how that could happen from a macroscopic view.
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