Sequence of functions, uniform convergence

In summary: I think.In summary, the homework statement is a sequence of continuous functions on E that converges uniformly on E. For each x in E, there is a function g that is defined as the supremum of f_n(x). The function g is continuous on E, and it follows that g is a function on the whole E-dimensional space E-A. Furthermore, if p is an interior point in B, then g(p) is not equal to f(p).
  • #1
boombaby
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Homework Statement


{f_n} is a sequence of continuous functions on E=[a,b] that converges uniformly on E. for each x in E, set g(x)=sup{f_n(x)}. Prove that g is continuous on E


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I've got an idea to prove it:
Let e>0 be given, there is a N such that
|f_n(x)-f(x)|<e
for all n>N and all x in E.
Let K_n={x|f_n(x)>=e+f(x)}, n=1,2,3...,N.
each K_n is closed since f_n is continuous.
Let [tex]A=\cup^{N}_{1} K_{i}[/tex] then A is closed.
g(x) is continuous on A (since there are only N functions to deal with. And I find it tedious to prove?)
Let B=E-A.
Then f(x)<=g(x)<f(x)+e, for any x in B.
let p be an interior point in B.
if g(p)=f_k(p), for some k>N.
since f_k(p) is continuous, there is a neighborhood of p such that if q is in it and also in B.
|f_k(p)-f_k(q)|<e
then,
|g(p)-g(q)|<=|f_k(p)-f_k(q)|+|f_k(q)-g(q)|<=e+|f_k(q)-f(q)|+|f(q)-g(q)|<=e+e+e=3e.
hence g(x) is continuous at p.
if g(p)=f(p).
|g(p)-g(q)|<=|f(p)-f(q)|+|f(q)-g(q)|=2e, which implies
g(x) is continuous at p.
It is analogous to say that g(x) is continuous if p is the boundary point of B.

It seems okay. But I'm not satisfied with it, it looks so lenthy and not well organized and I believe there is some other proof much better than this one. Any hint?
 
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  • #2
I don't think you quite have it down.

Imagine if your functions were just fk(x) = 1-1/k on the whole interval. Then fk converges to 1 uniformly, and clearly A is empty as fn < f everywhere for all n. Then B is the whole interval, yet g(x) =/= fk(x) for any x,k combination. I think this is fixed by a better definition of Kn (probably what you wrote isn't what you really intended)
 
  • #3
I think the case that g(x)=f(x) is included in the last few lines...check it and tell me if anything goes wrong.Thanks!
 
  • #4
Whoops... I missed the word 'if'. Pretty important
 

FAQ: Sequence of functions, uniform convergence

1. What is the definition of uniform convergence?

Uniform convergence is a type of convergence in which the limit of a sequence of functions is approached at the same rate at every point in the domain. In other words, for every epsilon greater than 0, there exists a positive integer N such that for all x in the domain, the difference between the function and its limit is less than epsilon when n is greater than or equal to N.

2. How is uniform convergence different from pointwise convergence?

Uniform convergence differs from pointwise convergence in that for uniform convergence, the rate at which the limit is approached is independent of the point in the domain, while for pointwise convergence, the rate may vary at different points in the domain.

3. Why is uniform convergence important in the study of sequences of functions?

Uniform convergence is important in the study of sequences of functions because it allows us to establish a connection between the limit function and the sequence of functions. It also allows us to interchange the limit and integral operations, which is crucial in many areas of mathematics and science.

4. How can we determine if a sequence of functions converges uniformly?

To determine if a sequence of functions converges uniformly, we can use the Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence. This states that a sequence of functions is uniformly convergent if and only if for every epsilon greater than 0, there exists a positive integer N such that for all m and n greater than or equal to N, the difference between the mth and nth functions is less than epsilon for all points in the domain.

5. Can a sequence of non-uniformly convergent functions have a uniformly convergent subsequence?

Yes, a sequence of non-uniformly convergent functions can have a uniformly convergent subsequence. This is known as the Arzelà–Ascoli theorem, which states that a sequence of continuous functions on a compact set has a uniformly convergent subsequence if and only if it is uniformly bounded and equicontinuous.

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