Sequence of functions, uniform convergence

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a sequence of continuous functions {f_n} defined on the interval E=[a,b] that converges uniformly. The original poster is tasked with proving that the function g(x), defined as the supremum of the sequence at each point x in E, is continuous on E.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to construct a proof involving neighborhoods and closed sets, but expresses dissatisfaction with the organization and clarity of their approach. They seek hints for a potentially better proof.
  • Some participants question the validity of the original poster's reasoning by providing a counterexample and suggesting a reevaluation of the definitions used in the proof.
  • Another participant reflects on the inclusion of specific cases in the original poster's argument and asks for verification of the reasoning.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring different aspects of the proof and questioning assumptions. There is no explicit consensus on the correctness of the original poster's approach, but suggestions for improvement and clarification are being exchanged.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of uniform convergence and the properties of supremum functions, with some noting potential gaps in the original poster's definitions and reasoning.

boombaby
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Homework Statement


{f_n} is a sequence of continuous functions on E=[a,b] that converges uniformly on E. for each x in E, set g(x)=sup{f_n(x)}. Prove that g is continuous on E


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I've got an idea to prove it:
Let e>0 be given, there is a N such that
|f_n(x)-f(x)|<e
for all n>N and all x in E.
Let K_n={x|f_n(x)>=e+f(x)}, n=1,2,3...,N.
each K_n is closed since f_n is continuous.
Let [tex]A=\cup^{N}_{1} K_{i}[/tex] then A is closed.
g(x) is continuous on A (since there are only N functions to deal with. And I find it tedious to prove?)
Let B=E-A.
Then f(x)<=g(x)<f(x)+e, for any x in B.
let p be an interior point in B.
if g(p)=f_k(p), for some k>N.
since f_k(p) is continuous, there is a neighborhood of p such that if q is in it and also in B.
|f_k(p)-f_k(q)|<e
then,
|g(p)-g(q)|<=|f_k(p)-f_k(q)|+|f_k(q)-g(q)|<=e+|f_k(q)-f(q)|+|f(q)-g(q)|<=e+e+e=3e.
hence g(x) is continuous at p.
if g(p)=f(p).
|g(p)-g(q)|<=|f(p)-f(q)|+|f(q)-g(q)|=2e, which implies
g(x) is continuous at p.
It is analogous to say that g(x) is continuous if p is the boundary point of B.

It seems okay. But I'm not satisfied with it, it looks so lenthy and not well organized and I believe there is some other proof much better than this one. Any hint?
 
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I don't think you quite have it down.

Imagine if your functions were just fk(x) = 1-1/k on the whole interval. Then fk converges to 1 uniformly, and clearly A is empty as fn < f everywhere for all n. Then B is the whole interval, yet g(x) =/= fk(x) for any x,k combination. I think this is fixed by a better definition of Kn (probably what you wrote isn't what you really intended)
 
I think the case that g(x)=f(x) is included in the last few lines...check it and tell me if anything goes wrong.Thanks!
 
Whoops... I missed the word 'if'. Pretty important
 

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