Serious conceptual problem with QM (eigenfunctions)

sachi
Messages
63
Reaction score
1
The wavefunction psi is often separated into two parts, the time dependent part and the part which has only spatial dependence (phi), and this I think can only be done if we assume that the potential is not a function of time. I often see proofs where we have H acting on phi (not psi) and we get H (phi1) = E1*phi1. However this equation is essentially just the TISE, which of course only applies for time independent potentials. Does this mean that we should generally assume that the potential is not a function of time while working with eigenfunctions of different observables?

Also, does the potential not being a function of time essentially the same as having an isolated system?

Sachi
 
Physics news on Phys.org
time indep.: No, not in general. Time-dependent perturbation theory is the first counterexample I thought of.
 
sachi said:
The wavefunction psi is often separated into two parts, the time dependent part and the part which has only spatial dependence (phi), and this I think can only be done if we assume that the potential is not a function of time.

If the Hamiltonian is explicitely time independent, we can factorize the time-dependence of the state vactor into an exponential containing the spectral values of the Hamiltonian.

Sachi said:
I often see proofs where we have H acting on phi (not psi) and we get H (phi1) = E1*phi1. However this equation is essentially just the TISE, which of course only applies for time independent potentials. Does this mean that we should generally assume that the potential is not a function of time while working with eigenfunctions of different observables?
Also, does the potential not being a function of time essentially the same as having an isolated system?
Sachi

Isolated systems involve (at classical level) the absence of external force fields. The only possible interactions are the internal ones which are generally time independent...

Daniel.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top