Simple Fourier coefficient exponential

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the integral of the complex exponential function, specifically the expression \(\int^{T}_{0} e^i\frac{2\pi(n-m)t}{T} dt\), and determining its value based on the conditions of \(n\) and \(m\). The context is rooted in Fourier analysis and the properties of orthogonal functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the use of orthogonal identities related to sine and cosine functions to evaluate the integral. There are attempts to manipulate the exponential form into a product of trigonometric functions. Some participants suggest alternative methods for evaluating the integral, including treating \(i\) as a constant.

Discussion Status

The discussion includes various attempts to clarify the evaluation process and identify potential errors in reasoning. Some participants provide alternative expressions for the integral, while others question the correctness of the original poster's equations and assumptions. There is a recognition of differing interpretations and approaches without a clear consensus on the resolution.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the original equations presented may contain inaccuracies, particularly regarding the constants involved in the orthogonal relations. There is also a mention of the conditions under which the integral simplifies, specifically when \(a = 0\) or \(n = m\).

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Homework Statement



I think I am being stupid, I am trying to show that

## \int^{T}_{0} e^i\frac{2\pi(n-m)t}{T} dt = 0 ## [1] if ## n \neq m##
## = T ## if ##n=m##, ##T## the period.

Homework Equations


[/B]
I am using the following ##cos## and ##sin## orthogonal identities:

1) ##\int^{2 \pi / g}_0 sin ( n g x) sin ( m g x ) dx = \delta_{nm} ##
2) ##\int^{2 \pi / g}_0 cos ( n g x) cos ( m g x ) dx = \delta_{nm} ##
3) ##\int^{2 \pi / g}_0 sin ( n g x) cos ( m g x ) dx = \delta_{nm} ##

The Attempt at a Solution



## e^i\frac{2\pi(n-m)t}{T} dt = e^i\frac{2\pi(n)t}{T} . e^i\frac{2\pi(n-m)t}{T} ##
(Let ##g=\frac { 2 \pi i}{T} ##)
##= (cos ( g n t) + i sin (gnt) ).(cos ( g m t) - i sin ( g m t))##

So using the orthogonal identities [1] the contribution to [1] from the ##coscos## and ##sinsin## term gives ##2 \delta _{nm} ##, and then from the cross ##sin## and ##cos## terms I am getting

## i \delta_{nm} - i \delta_{nm} = 0 ##.

So I am getting ## 2 \delta _{nm} ##

Which I can see straight off is wrong since I am not dividing by the period to get the coefficient. (independent of it)

Many thanks in advance.
 
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mmmhh, I think ##g=\frac{2\pi}{T}##, using the orthogonal relations is good, in fact another way can be calculating directing the integral treating ##i## as a constant, in this way you can see the rersult that is still immediate ...

Ssnow
 
binbagsss said:

Homework Statement



I think I am being stupid, I am trying to show that

## \int^{T}_{0} e^i\frac{2\pi(n-m)t}{T} dt = 0 ## [1] if ## n \neq m##
## = T ## if ##n=m##, ##T## the period.

Homework Equations


[/B]
I am using the following ##cos## and ##sin## orthogonal identities:

1) ##\int^{2 \pi / g}_0 sin ( n g x) sin ( m g x ) dx = \delta_{nm} ##
2) ##\int^{2 \pi / g}_0 cos ( n g x) cos ( m g x ) dx = \delta_{nm} ##
3) ##\int^{2 \pi / g}_0 sin ( n g x) cos ( m g x ) dx = \delta_{nm} ##

The Attempt at a Solution



## e^i\frac{2\pi(n-m)t}{T} dt = e^i\frac{2\pi(n)t}{T} . e^i\frac{2\pi(n-m)t}{T} ##
(Let ##g=\frac { 2 \pi i}{T} ##)
##= (cos ( g n t) + i sin (gnt) ).(cos ( g m t) - i sin ( g m t))##

So using the orthogonal identities [1] the contribution to [1] from the ##coscos## and ##sinsin## term gives ##2 \delta _{nm} ##, and then from the cross ##sin## and ##cos## terms I am getting

## i \delta_{nm} - i \delta_{nm} = 0 ##.

So I am getting ## 2 \delta _{nm} ##

Which I can see straight off is wrong since I am not dividing by the period to get the coefficient. (independent of it)

Many thanks in advance.

If ##a \neq 0## we have
$$\int_0^T e^{i a t/T} \, dt = \frac{1}{a} iT \left(1-e^{ia}\right)$$.
Put ##a = 2 \pi (n-m)## and simplify, assuming ##n,m## are unequal integers.

Of course, when ##a=0## the integral is just ##\int_0^T 1 \, dt. ##.
 
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Ssnow said:
mmmhh, I think ##g=\frac{2\pi}{T}##, using the orthogonal relations is good, in fact another way can be calculating directing the integral treating ##i## as a constant, in this way you can see the rersult that is still immediate ...

Ssnow

so where have I gone wrong?
 
Ray Vickson said:
If ##a \neq 0## we have
$$\int_0^T e^{i a t/T} \, dt = \frac{1}{a} iT \left(1-e^{ia}\right)$$.
Put ##a = 2 \pi (n-m)## and simplify, assuming ##n,m## are unequal integers.

Of course, when ##a=0## the integral is just ##\int_0^T 1 \, dt. ##.

but what is the error in my working anybody please?
 
binbagsss said:
but what is the error in my working anybody please?

Your equations (1), (2), (3) are incorrect. ##\int_0^{2\pi/g} \cos(n g t) \cos(m g t) \, dt = c \delta_{m,n} ,## but ##c \neq 1##.
 

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