Apteronotus
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Hi everyone,
I read somewhere that solutions to Laplace's Equation must agree at a shared boundary.
So for example if \Phi_{1} and \Phi_{2} are two solutions to the Laplace equation in two different regions which share a boundary, then on the boundary \Phi_{1} = \Phi_{2}
Is this true?
Can you help me see why?
Thanks in advance,
I read somewhere that solutions to Laplace's Equation must agree at a shared boundary.
So for example if \Phi_{1} and \Phi_{2} are two solutions to the Laplace equation in two different regions which share a boundary, then on the boundary \Phi_{1} = \Phi_{2}
Is this true?
Can you help me see why?
Thanks in advance,