Solving Friction Fraction: Step-by-Step Guide

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The discussion revolves around a physics problem involving two ramps, one frictionless and one with friction, where a student is trying to determine the coefficient of sliding friction for the second ramp. The student has established the initial conditions and equations of motion for both blocks on the ramps, noting that the block on the frictionless ramp travels further. Initial calculations led to a cancellation of variables, causing confusion about the next steps. However, the student eventually realized how to define the accelerations to incorporate the coefficient of friction into the equations. This problem illustrates the application of work-energy principles in solving for friction in a comparative scenario.
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Here is the problem:

A student has two ramps both are at an angle of 30o. Ramp 1 is frictionless and ramp 2 has friction. The student also has two blocks, one for each ramp. She pushes the blocks up the ramps with the same initial velocity. The block on ramp 2 only travels a fraction f = 0.625 as far before coming to a stop as the block on ramp 1. Find the coefficient of sliding friction between the block and ramp 2.

How do I even begin this problem? I have found the forces of each of the blocks. I know that it will involve more than one equation and the canceling out of variables to find the unknown needed. But how?
 
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I think I would be inclined to use work-energy calculations. Both blocks start with the same amount of energy...
 
Well, this is a problem I've put aside a while, but still haven't been able to figure out. So far, I have discovered that Vo = Vo for both blocks on ramp 1 and 2. D1 = D and D2 = 0.625D .

Solving for A), Ramp 1

Vf ^ 2 = Vi ^2 + 2a(delta D)
0 = Vi ^2 + 2a(delta D)
0 = Vi^2 + 2aD

Solving for B), Ramp 2

Vf^2 = Vi^ 2 + 2a(delta D)
0 = Vi^2 + (2a)(0.625D)

Substituting and setting equations equal you get:

Vi1 ^2 + 2aD = Vi2^2 + (2a)(0.625D)
2aD = (2a)(0.625D)

From here, if I try to solve for one variable, both cancel out leaving me at a road block. Did I take a wrong detour in coming to where I am now? Or have I done something completely wrong?
 
Nevermind, I figured out where to go and how a1 and a2 were defined to cancel out the D variable and bring in the coefficient of friction variable.
 
Kindly see the attached pdf. My attempt to solve it, is in it. I'm wondering if my solution is right. My idea is this: At any point of time, the ball may be assumed to be at an incline which is at an angle of θ(kindly see both the pics in the pdf file). The value of θ will continuously change and so will the value of friction. I'm not able to figure out, why my solution is wrong, if it is wrong .
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