Castilla
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I am trying to follow a proof of
\int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-x^2}dx = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2} but the first impasse I find is that, "with the change of variable" \sqrt{n}x = y they justify this equality:
{\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}\int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-y^2}dy = \int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-nx^2}dx.
Maybe you can help me to see how they did it? Thanks.
\int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-x^2}dx = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2} but the first impasse I find is that, "with the change of variable" \sqrt{n}x = y they justify this equality:
{\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}\int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-y^2}dy = \int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-nx^2}dx.
Maybe you can help me to see how they did it? Thanks.