Solving integral - gaussian distribution of cos

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving an integral involving a cosine function and a Gaussian distribution. The integral is expressed in terms of parameters such as \(L_{av}\), \(\sigma\), \(v\), and \(\tau\), with the condition that \(\sigma\) is much smaller than \(L_{av}\).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss changing the limits of integration from \(-\infty\) to \(\infty\) to \(0\) to \(\infty\) based on the assumption that \(\sigma\) is much smaller than \(L_{av}\). There is mention of looking up integral solutions and the potential use of complex numbers to simplify the cosine term. Questions arise regarding the notation used for \(L_{av}\) and the clarity of the original problem statement.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different interpretations of the integral and its components. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of complex exponentials, but there is still a lack of clarity in the notation and setup of the problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of clear notation, particularly in distinguishing between different variables and expressions. There is an emphasis on ensuring that the mathematical expressions are correctly formatted to avoid ambiguity.

poul
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Homework Statement



I have to prove:

∫(-infinity:infinity) cos(pi*v/2L)*e^-((L-L_av)^2/sqrt(2pi)*sigma^2) dL proportional to
cos(pi*v/2L_av)*e^-(t/tau)^2

tau is some constant, and sigma << L_av.

The Attempt at a Solution



i can change the integral to 0:infinity, since sigma << L_av. Then i have to look up some integral solution, probably:

∫(0:infinity) cos(bx)*e^-ax^2 dx

I assume i have to do some trick like 1/L approximately L/L_av^2 - but how can i justify that?
 
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Can you use complex numbers? If so, you can rewrite your cosine in term of complex exponentials which will make things quite easy.
 
poul said:

Homework Statement



I have to prove:

∫(-infinity:infinity) cos(pi*v/2L)*e^-((L-L_av)^2/sqrt(2pi)*sigma^2) dL proportional to
cos(pi*v/2L_av)*e^-(t/tau)^2

tau is some constant, and sigma << L_av.

The Attempt at a Solution



i can change the integral to 0:infinity, since sigma << L_av. Then i have to look up some integral solution, probably:

∫(0:infinity) cos(bx)*e^-ax^2 dx

I assume i have to do some trick like 1/L approximately L/L_av^2 - but how can i justify that?

It is very unclear what your original problem is, because you do not use brackets. You have something written as L_av. Does this mean Lav or does it mean Lav? If you mean the first, write L_{av} or L_(av), and if you mean the second, either write a*L_v or (L_v)a. Better still, use the "X2" button in the menu above the input panel. Anyway, setting L_av = c, some constant, it is still not clear whether you mean
\cos \left( \frac{\pi v}{2L} \right) \text{ or } \cos \left( \frac{\pi v}{2} L \right) in the integrand. If you mean the first, write cos(pi*v/(2L)), but if you mean the latter, write cos((pi*v/2)L).

Similarly, when you write e^-ax^2, you are literally writing ##e^{-a} x^2## if we read it using standard rules and conventions. I guess you mean ##e^{-ax^2},## which is e^{-ax^2} or e^(-ax^2) in plain text, or better still, e-ax^2 or e-ax2, using the "X2" button in the menu at the top of the input panel.

RGV
 
Okay, I have to prove:

∫(-infinity:infinity) cos(pi*v/(2L))*e-((L-L_{av})^2/(2*sigma^2)) dL proportional to
cos(pi*v/(2L_{av}))*e-(t/tau)^2

sigma << L_{av} - both positive
 

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