- #1
ghostbuster25
- 102
- 0
ive been asked to show that the function of Y(x) = A sin (x) = 0 is a solution to the equation of
d2Y(x)
dx2
+k2Y(x)=0
where the Y is meant to be the lowercase wavefunctio psi...i just can't get it to work on this :(
basiaclly I am completely stuck. I am not really sure what to do! any help would be much appreciated :)
many thanks
d2Y(x)
dx2
+k2Y(x)=0
where the Y is meant to be the lowercase wavefunctio psi...i just can't get it to work on this :(
basiaclly I am completely stuck. I am not really sure what to do! any help would be much appreciated :)
many thanks