- #1
The_Lobster
- 30
- 0
In an example in my book (Uni. physics), there's a circuit with emf = 12V, internal resistance, r = 2 Ohm, and no external resistance, R = 0, short circuit.
What I don't get, is that it says that across the terminals, the potential difference between these points must be zero since there is no resistance in the outer loop. (And I can see from V = IR that this _must_ be the case). But the current now will be I = emf / r = 6 A, so there is a current, and the emf does work to move charges from negative terminal to the positive terminal? So how can there still be no potential difference? Isn't this contradictory?...
Edit: Can't this be rewritten as an ideal source with external resistance?
What I don't get, is that it says that across the terminals, the potential difference between these points must be zero since there is no resistance in the outer loop. (And I can see from V = IR that this _must_ be the case). But the current now will be I = emf / r = 6 A, so there is a current, and the emf does work to move charges from negative terminal to the positive terminal? So how can there still be no potential difference? Isn't this contradictory?...
Edit: Can't this be rewritten as an ideal source with external resistance?