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Lynch101

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- Baisc question about statistical independence in QM - are they simple correlations or is there a nuance?

Very basic question here, about statistical independence in quantum mechanical experiments. The quote from PD below is what prompted the question.

I understand the issue of the photons from the quasars having been emitted a billion years earlier, but is there any other nuance that is at play?

When we talk about "some kind of pre-existing correlation" are talking about a simple correlation in the sense of the correlation of sunglasses and ice creams, or is a more nuanced type of correlation (of which I am unfamiliar) meant?We are talking about a lack of statistical independence between a photon source at A and light sources in two quasars, each a billion light-years from A in opposite directions. How else could that possibly be except by some kind of pre-existing correlation?

I understand the issue of the photons from the quasars having been emitted a billion years earlier, but is there any other nuance that is at play?