- #1
kron
- 8
- 0
Hi,
as you all know one can write the Maxwell-equations in covariant form, namely:
[tex]\partial_a F^{ab} = \frac{4\pi }{c} j^{b} [/tex]
and
[tex]\partial_a G^{ab}=0[/tex]
where [tex]\textbf{G}[/tex] is the dual Tensor to [tex]\textbf{F}[/tex].
Now the two simple questions.
I can see that they are invariant, because I have a 4-Vector on both sides, and so the rhs and lhs
will transform in the same way, right ?
So the equation will have in another frame exactly the same form.
But on the other hand this equations would be invariant under all such transformations, not only
Lorentztransformations ?
I don't get it..
Thanks
as you all know one can write the Maxwell-equations in covariant form, namely:
[tex]\partial_a F^{ab} = \frac{4\pi }{c} j^{b} [/tex]
and
[tex]\partial_a G^{ab}=0[/tex]
where [tex]\textbf{G}[/tex] is the dual Tensor to [tex]\textbf{F}[/tex].
Now the two simple questions.
I can see that they are invariant, because I have a 4-Vector on both sides, and so the rhs and lhs
will transform in the same way, right ?
So the equation will have in another frame exactly the same form.
But on the other hand this equations would be invariant under all such transformations, not only
Lorentztransformations ?
I don't get it..
Thanks