- #1

Cerenkov

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I was wondering if I could please have a little help converting a double exponential that is expressed in metres into light years?

My math simply isn't up to the task.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multiverse

*Level I: An extension of our universe*

*A prediction of cosmic inflation is the existence of an infinite ergodic universe, which, being infinite, must contain Hubble volumes realizing all initial conditions.*

Accordingly, an infinite universe will contain an infinite number of Hubble volumes, all having the same physical laws and physical constants. In regard to configurations such as the distribution of matter, almost all will differ from our Hubble volume. However, because there are infinitely many, far beyond the cosmological horizon, there will eventually be Hubble volumes with similar, and even identical, configurations. Tegmark estimates that an identical volume to ours should be about 1010115 meters away from us.

Given infinite space, there would, in fact, be an infinite number of Hubble volumes identical to ours in the universe. This follows directly from the cosmological principle, wherein it is assumed that our Hubble volume is not special or unique.The reason I ask this question is that descriptions of distances within our observable universe in the popular science publications that I can read and understand are usual given in light years.

Accordingly, an infinite universe will contain an infinite number of Hubble volumes, all having the same physical laws and physical constants. In regard to configurations such as the distribution of matter, almost all will differ from our Hubble volume. However, because there are infinitely many, far beyond the cosmological horizon, there will eventually be Hubble volumes with similar, and even identical, configurations. Tegmark estimates that an identical volume to ours should be about 1010115 meters away from us.

Given infinite space, there would, in fact, be an infinite number of Hubble volumes identical to ours in the universe. This follows directly from the cosmological principle, wherein it is assumed that our Hubble volume is not special or unique.

I suspect that the act of my trying to mentally compare distances within our Hubble volume to the immensities that might lie beyond will be (ahem!) difficult.

Therefore, is it possible to make the comparison between these two different scales of distance if it were expressed as a percentage?

Say, the diameter of our observable universe is (insert percentage) of the distance to the nearest identical Hubble volume?

Or another way that might be more appropriate or informative?

My thanks in advance for any help given.

Cerenkov.