Ok, many thanks. Though I'm still not sure if I understand this. I mean it's quite unclear to me how these are used.
Edit: The problem is the following:
We have vectors a=(a1,a2,a3) and b=(b1,b2,b3)
Express the spin state |+>b as a linear combination of the normalized eigenvectors of the spin operator Sa and show that the probabilities to measure +/- hbar/2 are cos^2 (\theta/2) andsin^2 (\theta/2) where theta is the angle between a and b.
I know the eigenvectors of Sa but can't get past that.
Below is everything I have so far.
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How do I calculate the eigenvalue of S?
\textbf{S}=\frac{\hbar}{2}(x \sigma _x + y \sigma _y + z \sigma _z)=<br />
\frac{\hbar}{2}\left( \begin{array}{cc} z & x -iy \\ x +iy & -z \end{array} \right)<br />
So the eigenvalues would be..?
<br />
\left| \begin{array} {cc}\frac{\hbar}{2}z-\lambda & \frac{\hbar}{2}(x-iy) \\ \frac{\hbar}{2}(x+iy) & -\frac{\hbar}{2}z-\lambda \end{array}\right|<br />
\Rightarrow \lambda = ^+_- \frac{\hbar}{2}
because (x,y,z) is a unit vector.
If I'm to find the eigenvector (of the positive eigenvalue):
\textbf{Sv}=\frac{\hbar}{2}\textbf{v}\Rightarrow\frac{\hbar}{2}\left( \begin{array}{cc} z & x -iy \\ x +iy & -z \end{array} \right)\textbf{v}=\frac{\hbar}{2}\textbf{v}\Rightarrow\left( \begin{array}{cc} z & x -iy \\ x +iy & -z \end{array} \right)\textbf{v}=\textbf{v}\Rightarrow\left( \begin{array}{cc} z & x -iy \\ x +iy & -z \end{array} \right)\left( \begin{array}{c} u \\ v \end{array} \right)=\left( \begin{array}{c} u \\ v \end{array} \right)
I get two equations:
zu+(x-iy)v=u \ \ ,\ \ (x+iy)u-zv=v
Rearranging these:
(z-1)u+(x-iy)v=0 \ \ = \ \ (x+iy)u-(z+1)v=0
And again:
(z-1)u-(x+iy)u=(-x+iy)v-(z+1)v\Rightarrow<br />
(-x-iy+z-1)u=(-x+iy-z-1)v\Rightarrow<br />
u=-x+iy-z-1 \ \ ,\ \ v=-x-iy+z-1<br />
So the eigenvector would be
\left( \begin{array}{c} -x+iy-z-1 \\ -x-iy+z-1 \end{array}\right)
And for the negative eigenvalue
\left( \begin{array}{c} -x+iy-z+1 \\ -x-iy+z+1 \end{array}\right)
These seem to work if I insert them into
\textbf{Sv}=^+_-\frac{\hbar}{2}\textbf{v}
Normalizing the eigenvectors I get:
\chi_+=\frac{1}{2\sqrt{x+1}}\left( \begin{array}{c} -x+iy-z-1 \\ -x-iy+z-1<br />
\end{array}\right)
\chi_- =\frac{1}{2\sqrt{-x+1}}\left( \begin{array}{c} -x+iy-z+1 \\ -x-iy+z+1 \end{array}\right)
But I don't actually understand what I've just done. Is this physically reasonable?
How do I actually use these to get some generic spinor?
\chi = \frac{a+b}{2\sqrt{x+1}}\chi _+ + \frac{a-b}{2\sqrt{-x+1}}\chi _-\ \ ?
And to make things even more laborious, I'd have to know how to express the spin state of some other vector (i,j,k) as a linear combination of the previous eigenvectors. I know that when vectors m = (x,y,z) and n = (i,j,k) are unit vectors, then there's a relation m \cdot n =cos\ \theta
The problem is I don't understand how I can apply that relation to the spinors. If theta is the angle between m and n, how can I apply it to figure how the eigenvectors in the direction m relate to the eigenvectors in the direction n? If the eigenvectors X+ and X- are the eigenvectors of the spin operator S in the direction m, how can I use them to get the spinor in the direction n?