dingo_d
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So I am wondering about one thing. The charged propagators in weak theory are W+- bosons. The mathematical expression for them, while drawing the Feynman diagrams is:
-i\frac{g_{\mu\nu}-\frac{q_\mu q_\nu}{m_W^2}}{q^2-m_w^2}.
The problems that are usually given to me are simple and involve cases where either q^2>>m_w^2 or q^2<<m_w^2, so I can simplify the propagator and carry on with the calculation.
But what happens if the impulse transfer q is the same as the mass of the W boson?
Griffiths only says: "However, when a process involves energies that are comparable to M_wc^2 we must, of course, revert to the exact expression."
How does that help if they are the same? I'll still have a divergent expression!
Is this the point of renormalization? I just put, by hand, some small parameter down there and everything is fine? But that's kinda like cheating :\
-i\frac{g_{\mu\nu}-\frac{q_\mu q_\nu}{m_W^2}}{q^2-m_w^2}.
The problems that are usually given to me are simple and involve cases where either q^2>>m_w^2 or q^2<<m_w^2, so I can simplify the propagator and carry on with the calculation.
But what happens if the impulse transfer q is the same as the mass of the W boson?
Griffiths only says: "However, when a process involves energies that are comparable to M_wc^2 we must, of course, revert to the exact expression."
How does that help if they are the same? I'll still have a divergent expression!
Is this the point of renormalization? I just put, by hand, some small parameter down there and everything is fine? But that's kinda like cheating :\