pstq
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Hi,
I am trying to figure out how to draw all the three level Feynman diagrams corresponding to this lagrangian density L = \frac{1}{2} \partial _{\mu} \phi \partial^{\mu} \phi - \frac{\mu^2}{2}\phi^2- \frac{\eta}{3!}\phi^3-\frac{\lambda}{4!} \phi^4+i \bar{\psi} \gamma _{\mu} \partial^{\mu} \psi \phi -m \bar{\psi} \psi+ig \bar{\psi} \gamma^{5} \psi \phi
for this process F+ \bar{F} → F+ \bar{F}
and φ is the field associated to this particle F.
So i was thinking on drawing the 3 Feynman diagram (i.e. u, s,t channels ) for every interaction term . I mean
for the interaction \phi^3 three Feynman diagrams, whose vertex are proportional to
\eta^2
for \phi^4 another three , is that right ?
the problem is that I think that we don't have u channel in the \phi^3 case, but I am not sure why . So if someone could enlighten me about this as well, you will make another fellow human interested in particle physics very happy today.
and another question, \psi is the dirac spinor for another particle X which is not F, would i need to take into account the last term of the above Lagrangian which is interaction term between the particles F and the others , if I am considering only the above process F+ \bar{F} → F+ \bar{F} or not?
Any help with any question/ or any remark would be highly appreciated
thanks !
I am trying to figure out how to draw all the three level Feynman diagrams corresponding to this lagrangian density L = \frac{1}{2} \partial _{\mu} \phi \partial^{\mu} \phi - \frac{\mu^2}{2}\phi^2- \frac{\eta}{3!}\phi^3-\frac{\lambda}{4!} \phi^4+i \bar{\psi} \gamma _{\mu} \partial^{\mu} \psi \phi -m \bar{\psi} \psi+ig \bar{\psi} \gamma^{5} \psi \phi
for this process F+ \bar{F} → F+ \bar{F}
and φ is the field associated to this particle F.
So i was thinking on drawing the 3 Feynman diagram (i.e. u, s,t channels ) for every interaction term . I mean
for the interaction \phi^3 three Feynman diagrams, whose vertex are proportional to
\eta^2
for \phi^4 another three , is that right ?
the problem is that I think that we don't have u channel in the \phi^3 case, but I am not sure why . So if someone could enlighten me about this as well, you will make another fellow human interested in particle physics very happy today.
and another question, \psi is the dirac spinor for another particle X which is not F, would i need to take into account the last term of the above Lagrangian which is interaction term between the particles F and the others , if I am considering only the above process F+ \bar{F} → F+ \bar{F} or not?
Any help with any question/ or any remark would be highly appreciated
thanks !