Time dependent perturbation for harmonic oscillator

Vandmelon
Messages
3
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


I'm looking at the 1d harmonic oscillator
\begin{equation}
V(x)=\frac{1}{2}kx^2
\end{equation}
with eigenstates n and the time dependent perturbation
\begin{equation}
H'(t)=qx^3\frac{(\tau^2}{t^2+\tau^2}
\end{equation}
For t=-∞ the oscillator is in the groundstate n=0
I need to show that for n>3 the states will not get excited and I only need to look at the first order perturbation.

The Attempt at a Solution


What I'm thinking is \begin{equation}P_{a→b}=\vert c_b(t)\vert^2 \end{equation} therefore I need to find when c_b=0
and because
\begin{equation}
c_b'=-\frac{i}{\hbar}∫H_{ba}'(t')e^{i\omega_0t'}dt'
\end{equation}
I need to find
\begin{equation}
H_{ba}'=<\psi_n\vert H' \vert \psi_a >=0
\end{equation}
For n>3
It would make sense if H_ba look a bit like this
\begin{equation}
H_{ba}'=\frac{d^n}{dx^n}H'
\end{equation}
But I get some horrible results if I try to solve H_ba. Is it right what I am doing or is it way off.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You want to compute \langle n| H&#039; |0\rangle, which is proportional to \langle n| \hat{x}^3 |0\rangle. If you express \hat{x} in terms of raising and lowering operators \hat{a},\hat{a}^\dagger, you should be able to see how to reach the necessary result.
 
so if I use
\begin{equation}
\hat x=\sqrt{\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega}}(a_+ + a_-)
\end{equation}

then if I solved it right
\begin{equation}
\hat x^3 \psi_0=(\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega})^{\frac{3}{2}}[(a_+)^3+a_+ + a_- + (a_-)^3]\psi_0
\end{equation}
Is it correct if I use a_- on ψ_0 it will just be 0 so
\begin{equation}
\hat x^3 \psi_0=(\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega})^{\frac{3}{2}}[(a_+)^3\psi_0+a_+\psi_0]=(\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega})^{\frac{3}{2}}[\sqrt6 \psi_3+\psi_1]
\end{equation}
So it will end up like this
\begin{equation}
\langle \psi_n \vert\sqrt6 \psi_3+\psi_1 \rangle
\end{equation}
If this is correct I am not sure why the oscillator wouldn't get excited for n>3. Or is it my calculations there are wrong?

*EDIT
Oh is it because
\begin{equation}
\langle \psi_n \vert \psi_m \rangle = 0
\end{equation}
for n ≠ m
 
Last edited:
Vandmelon said:
so if I use
\begin{equation}
\hat x=\sqrt{\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega}}(a_+ + a_-)
\end{equation}

then if I solved it right
\begin{equation}
\hat x^3 \psi_0=(\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega})^{\frac{3}{2}}[(a_+)^3+a_+ + a_- + (a_-)^3]\psi_0
\end{equation}

You'll want to go back through the algebra here. Remember that a_+,a_- don't commute, so you have to keep track of the order of terms.

Is it correct if I use a_- on ψ_0 it will just be 0 so

...

Oh is it because
\begin{equation}
\langle \psi_n \vert \psi_m \rangle = 0
\end{equation}
for n ≠ m

You will have to use both of these relations. You have all of the right ideas, just fix the algebra.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top