Traditional double Atwood's machine

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The discussion revolves around understanding the dynamics of a traditional double Atwood's machine, specifically the accelerations of three particles involved. While the equations for tension and force are clear, confusion arises regarding the solution for the acceleration of m1. The user contemplates treating the second pulley system as a single mass, m2 + m3, but realizes this simplification is flawed because m2 and m3 experience different accelerations. The relationship between tensions T1 and T2 further complicates the scenario, emphasizing that the interactions in the system cannot be reduced to a single mass. Ultimately, the complexities of the system's mechanics prevent the black box approach from being valid.
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Ok, I can understand this problem, I have read it's solution, can see how it is arrived at... but I can't understand WHY it is true.

It's a traditional double Atwood's machine... have to find the accelerations of the three particles.

I can understand how they got the equations, for the second pulley, T1 = 2*T2. The force equations for the masses are straightforward too. The "conservation of string" equation is... a1 = -(a2 + a3)/2 which is... ok, I guess.

But, I have trouble understanding the solution. For, the acceleration of m1 is
a1 = g*(4*m2*m3 - m1*(m2+m3))/(4*m2*m3 + m1*(m2+m3)).

Now, What if I imagine the pulley 2 system as a black box, of mass m2+m3?

I'll get the equation for a1 as g*(m1 - (m2+m3))/(m1+m2+m3) .
So, why can't we imagine the second system as a black box?

There's some obvious reason here, I'm sure, but I just can't get it. :(
 

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You cannot replace the 2nd pulley system with a single mass equal to m2 + m3. For one thing, m2 and m3 have different accelerations, while your replacement mass would have only one.
 
Ok... thanks... I'm also thinking that maybe it's because T1 is determeined by T2...
 
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