Trajectory of a particle under the given force

AI Thread Summary
A particle in the xy-plane is subjected to a force attracting it towards the origin, described by the equation $$\vec{f} = - \frac{k^{2} m}{r^{6}}\vec{r}$$. The discussion revolves around deriving the trajectory of the particle, starting from position (a,0) with a specific speed. Participants clarify the nature of the equations involved, noting that the trajectory equation $$\vec{r} = a \cos \Theta$$ is a vector representation, and the Binet equation presented is actually a form of Newton's equation. There is debate about the correctness of the equations and the necessity for proper derivation. The conversation emphasizes the importance of accurately distinguishing between vector and scalar quantities in the equations.
Abhishek11235
Messages
174
Reaction score
39
A particle of mass m in xy plane is attracted toward the origin with the force
$$\begin{align}\vec{f} = - \frac{k^{2} m}{r^{6}}\vec{r}\end{align}$$ where ##\vec r## is position vector of particle measured from origin. If it starts at position ##(a,0)## with speed $$v=\frac{k}{\sqrt{2} a^{2}}$$ perpendicular to x-axis show that trajectory of given particle is
$$\vec r= a cosΘ $$
The equation I got is Binet equation which I can't solve for r. Thanks for help

The Binet equation I got is:

$$\ddot r - \vec r w^2 = \vec f$$

Here f is same as (##1##)
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Hello Abhishek, :welcome:
Abhishek11235 said:
The equation I got is Binet equation
Pity you don't post it: then I could compare it with mine, which looks reasonable. I can't solve it offhand either, but when I know the answer I can check that it satisfies the equation :rolleyes: (didn't check the constants, though)
 
  • Like
Likes berkeman
Couple of clarifications needed.
1. In:

$$\vec r=acosΘ$$

The left hand side is a vector. Is that intentional? If so, what is the vector on the right hand side

2. Similarly, in

##\ddot r-\vec r##ω2=##\vec f##

The first term on the left is not a vector, the other two are.
 
1. No. ##|\vec r| = a\cos\theta## is the r-component of a polar vector. The right hand side is a scalar. At ##t=0## you have ##\vec r = (a,0)\ ## (both in polar and in cartesian)

2. No again. The double derivative of a time dependent vector is a vector, in this case an acceleration vector ##\ddot{\vec r} \equiv \vec a## .

You edited in your result for the Binet equation. Good (it looks simple). But given the expression for ##\vec F##, I find it hard to believe. Can you show the derivation ?

(edit: this looks more like a warbled Newton equation if you ask me -- see here
and a bit further down that link also has an example with ##|\vec F|\propto r^{-3}##, so just follow the same path ... :cool: )
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes Abhishek11235
Chandra Prayaga said:
Couple of clarifications needed.
1. In:

$$\vec r=acosΘ$$

The left hand side is a vector. Is that intentional? If so, what is the vector on the right hand side

2. Similarly, in

##\ddot r-\vec r##ω2=##\vec f##

The first term on the left is not a vector, the other two are.
No. It is my typing mistake.
It should be ##\ddot {\vec r}-\vec r##ω2=##\vec f##

And for other it is:
##r= acos\theta##
 
@Chandra Prayaga : sorry I mistakenly took you for the thread starter
@Abhishek11235: that's not Binet, that's Newton ! Benefit from the 'hints' in post #4 :smile:
 
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top