Trigometric identity conversion within an integral

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    Identity Integral
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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding the average value of momentum in an infinite potential well, specifically focusing on the mathematical execution of the expectation value for momentum using trigonometric identities.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand the transition from one integral expression to another, questioning the multiplication by a half in the context of trigonometric identities. Some participants discuss the relevance of trigonometric formulas, such as the double angle and angle addition formulas, in this context.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring the implications of trigonometric identities on the problem at hand. There is a recognition of the original poster's confusion regarding the application of these identities, and some guidance has been offered regarding the mathematical relationships involved.

Contextual Notes

There is an indication that the original poster is grappling with the application of trigonometric identities and their manipulation within the integral, which may involve assumptions about the equations used.

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Homework Statement



The problem is finding the average value of momentum in an infinite potential well but the theory I understand, its the mathematical execution I'm having trouble with.


Homework Equations



The expectation value for the momentum is found using the conjugate formula

For odd solutions
[tex]\psi_n=Bcos(\frac{n\pi}{2a}x)[/tex]

then the expectation value is

[tex]<p_x> =\int^{a}_{-a} B cos(\frac{n\pi}{2a}x) (-i\hbar \frac {d}{dx}) B cos(\frac{n\pi}{2a}x)[/tex]

which is equivalent to

[tex]<p_x>= B^2(+{i}{\hbar})\frac{n\pi}{2a}\int^{a}_{-a}cos\frac{n\pi}{2a}xsin\frac{n\pi}{2a}x dx[/tex]

heres what I don't get, in my notes it multipies the above equation by a half which yields

[tex]<p_x>=B^2(+{i}{\hbar})\frac{n\pi}{2a}\int^{a}_{-a}sin\frac{n\pi}{a}xdx[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I really don't understands why this comes about and can make no sense from the trig tables, I'm sure the answer is trivial, yet it still alludes me, if anyone could shed any light on this I would be very grateful

by the way this is my first post here so forgive me if the latex is formatted incorrectly! :/
 
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whoops the last equation should be

[tex]<p_x> = B^2 (+{i} {\hbar} ) \frac{n\pi}{4a} \int^{a}_{-a} sin \frac{n\pi}{a} x dx[/tex]
 
It's just the trig formula for double angle sine:

[tex]sin(2 \theta) = 2 cos(\theta) sin(\theta)[/tex]
 
Yes it comes from the angle addition formula

[tex]sin (2 \alpha ) = sin( \alpha + \alpha ) = sin( \alpha ) cos( \alpha ) + cos( \alpha ) sin ( \alpha ) = 2 sin( \alpha ) cos( \alpha )[/tex]

and the angle addition formula comes from some geometry. you can see it here if you want.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proofs_of_trigonometric_identities
 
I would understand if the equation was multiplied by 2 but its multipied by 1/2 as the fraction in the end equation is
[tex]\frac{n\pi}{4a}[/tex],
and the integral inside is multiplied by 1/2 so the identity doesn't apply right?

or am i missing something stupidly obvious?
 
What happens when you take the identity and divide it by 2?
 
Ritorufon said:
I would understand if the equation was multiplied by 2 but its multipied by 1/2 as the fraction in the end equation is
[tex]\frac{n\pi}{4a}[/tex],
and the integral inside is multiplied by 1/2 so the identity doesn't apply right?

or am i missing something stupidly obvious?

It may be more helpful to see the formula as:

[tex]\frac{1}{2} sin( \alpha ) = sin( \frac{1}{2} \alpha ) cos( \frac{1}{2} \alpha )[/tex]
 
ah! stupidly obvious like I thought! thanks for your help and patience guys! that's been annoying me for weeks!
 

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