Uniformly Magnetized Cylinder (B/H Field)

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The discussion centers on the calculation of the magnetic field from a uniformly magnetized cylinder, specifically addressing the use of coordinates z and z' in the integration process. The distinction between z, the point of interest, and z', the coordinate of the current loop, is crucial for accurately determining the magnetic field. The integration should be performed with respect to z' from 0 to L to account for all current loops, rather than integrating with respect to z, which only provides the field at a specific point. The transformation between (z - z') and (z' - z) is clarified as both expressions yield the same squared distance. Alternative reasoning methods for solving the problem without using z' are sought, indicating a desire for broader understanding.
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Homework Statement



See figure attached.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Can someone explain to me why he uses,

(z' -z) \quad \text{ and } \quad dz'

What is the meaning of the ' ?

When I did this question, I preformed the integration with the limits from 0 to L with the z in tact using a differential dz.

Is that wrong?
 

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Still looking for some help!
 
He's using z to be the coordinate of the point where we want to calculate the magnetic field, and using z' to be the coordinate of the current loop. The distance from the current loop to the point is z - z', but he probably skipped a step and used z' - z instead because (z-z')^2 = (z' - z)^2. To consider the effects of all the loops from coordinate 0 to L, you have to integrate w.r.t. z' from 0 to L.

If you've integrated w.r.t. z from 0 to L, then you've found the magnetic field at coordinate 0, but you haven't found the magnetic field at a general coordinate z.
 
omoplata said:
He's using z to be the coordinate of the point where we want to calculate the magnetic field, and using z' to be the coordinate of the current loop. The distance from the current loop to the point is z - z', but he probably skipped a step and used z' - z instead because (z-z')^2 = (z' - z)^2. To consider the effects of all the loops from coordinate 0 to L, you have to integrate w.r.t. z' from 0 to L.

If you've integrated w.r.t. z from 0 to L, then you've found the magnetic field at coordinate 0, but you haven't found the magnetic field at a general coordinate z.

Is there any other way you can reason this problem out without using the z'?

I'd like to see the other perspectives if there are any.
 
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