V-Belt Drives & coefficient of friction

AI Thread Summary
Increasing the coefficient of friction in a V-belt drive enhances the maximum power transmission capability, as higher friction allows for greater force transfer before slippage occurs. Conversely, increasing the included angle of the pulley groove decreases the power transmitted, likely due to a reduction in the effective contact area between the belt and the pulley. The relationship between these factors can be expressed through the equation F1 / F2 = eµθ/ sinα. Understanding the balance between friction and groove angle is crucial for optimizing power transmission in belt drives. Proper analysis of these variables is essential for effective engineering solutions.
oxon88
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Homework Statement



1. A pulley 150 mm diameter is driven directly by an electric motor at 250 revs min–1. A V-belt is used to transmit power from this pulley to a second pulley 400 mm diameter against a load of 200 Nm.

The distance between the centre of the pulleys is 600 mm, the included angle of the pulley groove = 40°, the coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley is 0.4 and the ultimate strength of the belt is 8 kN.

What would be the effect of the following factors on the maximum power which can be transmitted (give reasons for your answer):

(i) increasing the coefficient of friction

(ii) increasing the included angle of the pulley groove.

Homework Equations



F1 / F2 = eµθ/ sinα

The Attempt at a Solution


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Increasing the coefficient of friction would increase the power up to a certain point. graph 1 shows this. however I'm having some trouble explaining why this is.

CoF_Power.png


Increasing the included angle of the pulley groove will have the effect of decreasing the power. again i have a graph which shows this, but cannot really explain why.

inside_angle_power.png


can anyone advise?
 
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oxon88 said:
Increasing the included angle of the pulley groove will have the effect of decreasing the power.
What's coeff. of friction as a function of angle?
 
not really sure, would that be F1 / F2 = eµθ/ sinα

but solved for sinα?
 
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