Validity of Newton's 2nd Law in accelerating ref. frame and constant v.

AI Thread Summary
Newton's second law, represented as F = ma, holds true in a reference frame moving at constant velocity, as the acceleration remains invariant under Galilean transformations. In this scenario, the relationship between velocities in different frames confirms that the law applies. However, when considering an accelerating reference frame, the law becomes invalid due to the introduction of additional forces arising from the frame's acceleration. This results in a new force that does not correspond to any physical interaction, complicating the application of Newton's second law. The discussion highlights the distinction between inertial and non-inertial frames in classical mechanics.
Hakkinen
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First of all I'm not sure if this is the right forum for this problem.

Homework Statement


Given that \overline{F}=m\overline{a} is valid in the lab frame S, show that:
(a) it is also valid in a moving frame S' with a constant velocity relative to S,
but (b) invalid in a moving frame with a changing velocity (ie, a frame S' accelerating relative to S).
Assume the force and mass are invariant

Homework Equations


The Galilean transformation.
Newtons 2nd law



The Attempt at a Solution


This is a non-required problem in the first homework set for an applied modern physics (sophomore level) course I'm taking. We have only had one lecture and I don't have the textbook so I'm not sure if the conclusions I've drawn are correct

So we have two reference frames S and S', with respective coordinates (x,y,z,t) and (x',y',z',t'). But we can use just (x,t) and (x',t') and draw the same conclusions. S' is moving relative to S with a constant velocity \overline{v} in part (a) and with an acceleration \overline{κ} in part (b). I believe t=t' must also be assumed as the concept of absolute time still exists in Newtonian mechanics.

For part (a)
In S
\overline{F}=m(d2x/dt2)=m(d\overline{u}/dt) (Where \overline{u} is the velocity measured in S)

The Galilean transformation gives this relationship between \overline{u} and \overline{u'} (velocity as measured in S')

\overline{u}=\overline{u'}+\overline{v}

In S'
\overline{F}=m(d(\overline{u'}+\overline{v}/dt)

if \overline{u}=\overline{u'}+\overline{v} then \overline{a'}= (d(\overline{u'}+\overline{v})/dt)) should equal the same acceleration \overline{a} measured in S. Thus if the force and mass are invariant as well, the 2nd law holds for a moving reference frame with some constant velocity \overline{v}.



For part (b) when S' is accelerating relative to S

Similarly in S
\overline{F}=m(d2x/dt2)=m(d\overline{u}/dt)

##\overline{u}=\overline{u'}+\overline{κ}##

##\overline{F}=m(d(\overline{u'}+\overline{κ})/dt)##

Thus ##\overline{F}=m\overline{a'}+m(d\overline{κ}/dt)## where ##(d\overline{κ}/dt)## is the jerk of ##\overline{κ}##

I believe this shows that the 2nd Law is not valid for an accelerating reference frame.

I would greatly appreciate any corrections and comments you can provide!
 
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Hakkinen said:
For part (b) when S' is accelerating relative to S

Similarly in S
\overline{F}=m(d2x/dt2)=m(d\overline{u}/dt)

##\overline{u}=\overline{u'}+\overline{κ}##
It is not true: The velocity transforms as

\overline{u}=\overline{u'}+\overline{v}

ehild
 
If that is the case then how is the result different from part (a)?
 
The velocity of the frame of reference changes with time: its time derivative is equal to κ

ehild
 
Ah I Think I understand now.

## \overline{u'}=\overline{u}-\overline{v}##

## \frac{d\overline{u'}}{dt} = \frac{d\overline{u}}{dt}-\overline{κ} ##

##\overline{F}=m\frac{d\overline{u'}}{dt}+ m \overline{κ} ##

Is this correct?
 
Yes, there is a new force in the accelerating frame, which does not belong to any interaction between bodies. That force pushes you forward in a braking car.

ehild
 
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