Your supposed to set up the integral and do it from the calculator.
y = , y = (cosx)^2, -pi/2 <= x <= pi/2
a. x axis
b. y axis
I = ∏∫(cosx)^4 dx = 3.70110 and for part b
I = ∏∫((1)-(cosx)^2)^2 dx = 3.70110
The Attempt at a Solution
Did I set this up right? It would be the same volume in both cases right?