What am I missing in the derivation of Landé g factor?

Otterhoofd
Messages
8
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



I was looking the calculation of Landé g factor. It starts with

\mu=-\frac{e}{2m_{e}} (\vec{L}+2\vec{S}) assuming that g of electron =2

The lecture notes then proceed by calculating g=1+\frac{J(J+1)+S(S+1)-L(L+1)}{2J(J+1)} using the cosine rule.

Homework Equations


the second equation is
\mu=-\frac{e}{2m_{e}} (\vec{J}+\vec{S}) using \vec{L}=\vec{J}-\vec{S}

which is, i think, just applying the third hund's rule J=L+S
However, the third Hund's rule also states that for less than half filled
J=\left|L-S\right|

This then does not give the well known solution posted above. What am i doing wrong? The rest of the calculation is perfectly clear to me, I just don't get the step from
\mu=-\frac{e}{2m_{e}} (\vec{L}+2\vec{S}) to \mu=-\frac{e}{2m_{e}} (\vec{J}+\vec{S})

The Attempt at a Solution


Tried various vector equations, but no luck. Please help me, I'm really stuck. I hope and think there is a simple solution! thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
\vec{J}, \vec{L}, and \vec{S} are angular momentum vectors. They're not the same as the quantum numbers j, l, and s. The vector and corresponding quantum number are related by

\vec{J}^2 = j(j+1)\hbar^2

with analogous relationships for \vec{L} and \vec{S}.

\vec{J} is the total angular momentum of the electron, which is just the sum of the orbital angular momentum \vec{L} and its spin \vec{S}.
 
vela said:
The vector and corresponding quantum number are related by

\vec{J}^2 = j(j+1)\hbar^2

with analogous relationships for \vec{L} and \vec{S}.

Not really. The relationship is actually

<br /> \vec{J}^2|j,m\rangle=j(j+1)\hbar^2|j,m\rangle<br />

and similarly for \vec{L} and \vec{S}. Recall that they are operators and you need to operate them on something to get the quantum numbers.
 
jdwood983 said:
Not really. The relationship is actually

<br /> \vec{J}^2|j,m\rangle=j(j+1)\hbar^2|j,m\rangle<br />

and similarly for \vec{L} and \vec{S}. Recall that they are operators and you need to operate them on something to get the quantum numbers.
D'oh! Yes, you're right of course. I was sloppy.
 
Thanks, i already thought this had to be the case. Explanation in my lecture notes is a bit sloppy I think.

Thanks for your explanation, everything is clear to me again!
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top