What is the 1st Order Expansion Problem for a Function with a Logarithm?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around performing a first-order expansion of a function involving logarithms and trigonometric terms, specifically the function f = (cos(θ)/sin(θ))ln((Lsin(θ)/dcos(θ))+1). Participants are exploring the challenges encountered when evaluating the function at θ=0 and the implications of undefined terms.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the need to evaluate limits as θ approaches 0 rather than directly substituting values. Suggestions include expanding the logarithm and using L'Hospital's rule for limit evaluation. There are also mentions of simplifying the function and using Taylor expansions.

Discussion Status

The conversation has led to various approaches being suggested, including logarithmic expansions and substitutions. Some participants have expressed a clearer understanding of the topic after reviewing related materials, indicating a productive exchange of ideas without a definitive conclusion.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the need for limit evaluation due to the undefined nature of f(0). Participants are also considering the implications of approximations and expansions in their calculations.

ks_wann
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I'm a bit frustrated at the moment, as this minor problem should be fairly easy. But I seem to go wrong at some point...

So I've got to do a 1st order expansion of the function
\begin{equation}
f=\frac{\cos(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)}\ln(\frac{L\sin(\theta)}{d\cos( \theta)}+1)
\end{equation}

and my steps are:

\begin{equation}

f(0)=0 \\
f^{\prime}(\theta)=-\frac{1}{\sin^2(\theta)}\ln(\frac{L\sin(\theta)}{d\cos(\theta)}+1)+ \frac{\cos(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)}\frac{d\cos(\theta)}{L\sin(\theta)+d \cos(\theta)}(\frac{\cos^2(\theta)+\sin^2(\theta)}{\cos^2(\theta)}\frac{L}{d}).
\end{equation}

When I insert theta=0 I end up divding by 0...
Furthermore, when I make my computer do the expansion, I get the correct result from the assignment I'm working on.

If anyone could help me out, I'd be grateful!
 
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f(0) is not defined, you need the limits at theta=0. Better expand the logarithm. You know that ln(1+x) ≈ x-x/2 if |x|<<1.

ehild
 
Last edited:
Or, if you let ##x = \tan\theta## and ##k=\frac L d## you have ##\frac{\ln(1+kx)}{x}##. You can find the limit as ##x\to 0## using L'Hospital's rule.
 
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If you're not sure about the substitution, you would have:

\lim_{\theta\to 0}f(\theta )=\lim_{\theta\to 0}\frac{\log\left(1+\frac{L}{d}\tan\theta\right)}{\tan\theta} = \lim_{\theta\to 0}\frac{\frac{d}{d\theta}\log\left(1+\frac{L}{d}\tan\theta\right)}{ \frac{d}{d\theta} \tan\theta}= \cdots
 
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The function can be written in simpler form as benorin has shown:

f(\theta )=\frac{\log\left(1+\frac{L}{d}\tan\theta\right)}{\tan\theta}

Use the Taylor expansion of log(1+x) = x - x2/2. Let be x=tan(theta).

f(\theta )≈\frac{\frac{L}{d}\tan\theta-\left(\frac{L}{d}\tan\theta\right)^2/2}{\tan\theta}

Simplify by tan(θ): You get an expression linear in tan(θ). You can expand tan(θ) with respect to θ...

ehild
 
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Thanks for all of your answers, it really helped me out. I've reread the series chapter of my calculus book, and I've come to a much better understanding of that subject in general.

I basically expand the logarithm in the function, and then I expand the function, which gave the correct answer.
 

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