The only reasonable thing I can think of that would even approach a suggestive argument (but is nowhere near a rigorous proof) would be to note that since surface area and volume are both unchanged by rotations, we would expect the shape that extremizes their ratio to share this symmetry.
Specifically, if it didn't have this symmetry, we could rotate it to get a new solution (whether two shapes related by a rotation are different is arguable, but if you set up the problem, say, in a fixed coordinate system, the actual parametric equations for the two surfaces will be different, so you could reasonably call them different solutions), but it seems natural that there should be some unique minimal surface (if you're really shifty, you can use the fact that they implicitly assumed a unique solution in their question).
The only shape invariant under rotations is the sphere, so this is all it could be. Of course, the same argument might show the sphere is the surface of maximal area for a given volume, which isn't true, so clearly there's something missing here.