What is the significance of the conjugate eigenvalues in a quantum Hamiltonian?

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The discussion centers on the implications of conjugate eigenvalues in a quantum Hamiltonian, specifically addressing the relationship between the potential V and the eigenvalues E_n and E_k. It is established that if E_n is an eigenvalue, its conjugate E^*_n is also an eigenvalue, indicating that V must be real. The proof involves manipulating inner products and demonstrating that the potential satisfies certain conditions, leading to the conclusion that <φ|V(x)|φ> equals <φ*|V^*(x)|φ*>. Additionally, questions arise regarding the nature of the wavefunction and the hermiticity of the momentum operator p, with discussions on proving relationships involving p and the eigenfunctions of the Hamiltonian. The conversation highlights the complexities of quantum mechanics and the significance of these mathematical properties in understanding physical systems.
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Quantum problem...:)

let be the next quantum problem we have a Hamiltonian with a potential V so H=T+V we don,t know if V is real or complex the only thing we now is that if E_{n} is an eigenvalue of the Hamiltonian also its conjugate E^*_{n}=E_{k} will also be an eigenvalue we have necesarily that V is real.. ..my proof is that

&lt;\phi]p^{2}+V[\phi&gt;=E_{n} taking the conjugate:

&lt;\phi^*]p^{2}+V^{*}[\phi^*&gt;=E^*_{n}=E_{k} (2)but E_k is also an energy so we would have the equation:


&lt;\phi]p^{2}+V[\phi&gt;=E_{k}
(3) ow equating down 2 and 3 we would have that

&lt;\phi^*]p^{2*}+V^{*}[\phi^*&gt;= &lt;\phi]p^{2}+V[\phi&gt;

so we would have in the end that &lt;\phi]V(x)[\phi&gt;=&lt;\phi^*]V^*(x)[\phi^*&gt; so the potential would be real...

we have that &lt;\phi][x&gt;=\phi^*(x) and that &lt;x][\phi&gt;=\phi(x) we would also have that \phi^*(x,E_{n})=\phi^(x,E^*_{n})=\phi(x,E_{k})

Another question is suppsed that p^2*=p^2 and that &lt;p\phi][p\phi&gt;=&lt;\phi]p^{2}[\phi&gt;
 
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Are you asking if your work is right? If so, I got lost at the third line. Is that a new wavefunction, or is it the same as the one from line 1? Your notation suggests it's the same, which doesn't follow from your work. And it's easy to prove p^2 is hermitian if p is.
 
Another question how i would prove that &lt;\phi|p^{2}|\phi&gt;=&lt;p\phi|p\phi&gt; ?..we know p is an observable so p=p+...
 
eljose said:
Another question how i would prove that &lt;\phi|p^{2}|\phi&gt;=&lt;p\phi|p\phi&gt; ?..we know p is an observable so p=p+...

&lt;\phi|a\phi&gt;=&lt;a*\phi|\phi&gt; and since p*=p &lt;\phi|p^{2}|\phi&gt;=&lt;p\phi|p\phi&gt;
 
another question,let,s suppose we have the identity:

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dx(|\phi_{n}(x)|^{2}+|\phi_{k}(x)|^{2})f(x)=0

valid for all the k and n eigenfunctions of a given Hamiltonian, then necessarily we must have that f=0
 
That doesn't necessarily have to be so. You can construct a hamiltonian for which all wavefunctions are zero outside an interval (i.e. infinite sqaure well) and have f(x) take nonzero values outside that interval.
 
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