What is with this line integral?

flyingpig
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Homework Statement




[PLAIN]http://img534.imageshack.us/img534/6859/unledei.jpg


3. The Solution

[PLAIN]http://img607.imageshack.us/img607/3104/unledfe.jpg

Why did they switch the order of x - 2xy3 in Green's Theorem?
 
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Also, if anyone could, tell me how to integrate this definite integral using Wolframalpha. I tried using

http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integrate[x-2xy^3%2C+{y%2C0%2C2x}%2C{x%2C0%2C1}]

But it keeps treating it as a single variable integral.
 
Green's theorem says
\oint Pdx+ Qdy= \int\int \frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}- \frac{\partial P}{\partial y}dA

It is not that the "order" has changed but that the "P" (which is multiplied by dx in the path integral) is differentiated with respect to y and the "Q" (which is multiplied by dy in the path integral) is differentiated with respect to x. And the reason for that is connected to the equality of "mixed" second partials.

IF "Pdx+ Qdy" is an "exact differential"- that is, if there exist a function F(x,y) such that dF= Pdx+ Qdy, then \int Pdx+ Qdy= \int dF= F evaluated between the end points of the path. And, of course, if the path is closed, the endpoints are the same and F(p)- F(p)= 0. But if Pdx+ Qdy is an exact differential, then we have P= \partial F/partial x and Q= \partial F/\partial y so that \partial P/\partial y= \partial F^2/\partial x\partial y and \partial Q/\partial x= \partial F/\partial y\partial x so that \partial Q/\partial x- \partial P/\partial y is the difference between the two "mixed" second derivatives- and, of course, as long as the derivatives are continuous, those mixed derivatives are equal and their difference is 0.

In essence, then, the two sides of
\oint Pdx+ Qdy= \int\int \frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}- \frac{\partial P}{\partial y}dA= \int\int \frac{\partial P}{\partial y}- \frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}dA
measure how much Pdx+ Qdy "misses" being an exact differential.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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