aviator
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i have a device where a spinning mass switches from a radius of 100 m to a radius of 1m by means of gearing, going the mass of 1 kg at a speed of 100 m/s
lets consider it frictionless
in order to reduce the radius i have to aply a work, the energy to aply that work comes from the 100 m/s of the mass because there's no other energy in the system
so when the ball has a radius of 1 m it has a lower speed having lost kinetic energy
my question is if the device is frictionles where has this kinetic energy gone to?
lets consider it frictionless
in order to reduce the radius i have to aply a work, the energy to aply that work comes from the 100 m/s of the mass because there's no other energy in the system
so when the ball has a radius of 1 m it has a lower speed having lost kinetic energy
my question is if the device is frictionles where has this kinetic energy gone to?