Where does the phi come from in the charge of a capacitor in an LC circuit?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the derivation of the charge equation for a capacitor in an LC circuit, specifically addressing the equation -L(di/dt) - q/C = 0. The transformation leads to the second-order differential equation q'' + (1/LC)q = 0, which is solved using standard techniques for homogeneous systems. The solution is expressed as q = k1*cos(at) + k2*sin(at), but the book presents it as q = Q*cos(at + phi), where phi represents a phase shift. The phase shift is crucial for understanding the behavior of the circuit over time.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of differential equations, particularly second-order homogeneous equations.
  • Familiarity with LC circuits and their components, specifically inductors (L) and capacitors (C).
  • Knowledge of trigonometric identities and their application in solving differential equations.
  • Basic concepts of phase shifts in oscillatory systems.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the solutions to second-order differential equations in the context of electrical circuits.
  • Explore the role of phase shifts in oscillatory motion and their implications in LC circuits.
  • Learn about the mathematical techniques for transforming trigonometric expressions, particularly focusing on the cosine and sine functions.
  • Review the impact of initial conditions on the constants k1 and k2 in the solution of differential equations.
USEFUL FOR

Physics students, electrical engineers, and anyone studying oscillatory systems in circuits will benefit from this discussion, particularly those interested in the mathematical foundations of LC circuits.

thed0ctor
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I'm reading University Physics 13e by Young and Freedman and we're given this equation:

-L(di/dt)-q/C=0

So we know that i, current, is, i=dq/dt. So the first equation can be read, after some simplification, as

q''+(1/LC)q=0

where q prime means the derivative of q (charge) with respect to time.

This is a homogeneous system so I figure solve it like anything else. So

s^2 = -(1/LC)
=>
s=i*(1/LC)^1/2... the i here is imaginary

let: a=(1/LC)^1/2

thus q=k1*cos(at) + k2*sin(at)

Yet in the formula in the book we end up with the formula:
q=Q*cos(at + phi)

with no sine...

Any help?
 
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Figured it out:

s48fb6.jpg


This was inspired by the youtube video I found here.
 

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