Which of these two decays is more likely using the CKM matrix?

InsertName
Messages
26
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



I'm trying to get familiar with how to use the CKM matrix when tackling such questions as "which of these two decays is more likely".

My example question is:

Which is more likely c\bar{d} ---> s\bar{d} or c\bar{d} ---> d\bar{d}


Homework Equations



The relationship between the weak eigenstates, the CKM matrix and the mass eigenstates:
(\acute{d}) (Vud Vus Vub) (d)
(\acute{s}) = (Vcd Vcs Vcb) (s)
(\acute{t}) (Vtd Vts Vtb) (t)

The Attempt at a Solution



I don't actually know where to start because I'm not sure how to use the CKM matrix in this way.

Here's my best guess:

The difference between the two interactions is that one has c--->s and the other has c--->d and the value of the element Vcd < Vcs so the most likely is c--->s so the most likely decay is c\bar{d} ---> s\bar{d}.

Any help with this is much appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Just add absolute values to your inequality (since the entries in the CKM matrix are generally complex), and you should be fine.
 
Cool, thanks.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...

Similar threads

Back
Top