Why Do These Complex Contour Integrals Equal Zero?

kreil
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Homework Statement



Calculate the following line integrals from point z'=(0,-1) to z"=(0,1) along three different contours, C_j=(0,1,2).

\int_{C_j}|z|dz

where C_0 is the straight line along the y-axis, C_1 is the right semi-circular contour of radius 1, and C_2 is the left semi-circular contour of radius 1.

The Attempt at a Solution



(i) Along C_0, z=iy \implies dz = idy and the integral is

\int_{C_0}|z|dz=i^2 \int_{-1}^1ydy=-\frac{y^2}{2}|_{-1}^1=-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}=0(ii) Along C_1, z=re^{i \theta} \implies dz = ire^{i \theta}d \theta[/tex] with \theta:\frac{3 \pi}{2} \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2}. Note that r=1.<br /> <br /> So, \int_{C_1}|z|dz = ir^2\int_{\frac{3 \pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}e^{2i \theta}d \theta=\frac{1}{2}e^{2 i \theta}|_{\frac{3 \pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}=\frac{1}{2} ( e^{i \pi}-e^{3i \pi})=0(iii) Along C_2, z=re^{i \theta} \implies dz = ire^{i \theta}d \theta with \theta:-\frac{\pi}{2} \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2}.<br /> <br /> The integral is similar to (ii), and one obtains:<br /> <br /> \frac{1}{2} ( e^{i \pi}-e^{-i \pi})=0<br /> <br /> Did I do these integrals correctly (correct limits in ii and iii)? If so then geometrically, why are these integrals equal to zero?<br /> <br /> Thanks for your comments.
 
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For (ii) and (iii), don't forget that you are integrating |z|, not z.

The point of the problem is to show you that the path integral does depend on the path you choose. You will see later that the value of a path integral is independent of the path if a function is holomorphic. That is because holomorphic functions have antiderivatives. It's the same theorem as in multivariable calculus, when you learned that the value of a path integral over a vector field depends only on the start and end points if the vector field is the gradient of a function.

In this example, the value of the integrals does depend on the path because |z| is not holomorphic.
 
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oops forgot i was integrating |z|..i fixed (ii) quickly and got an answer of 2i, is that correct?

<br /> \int_{C_1}|z|dz = ir^2\int_{\frac{3 \pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}e^{i \theta}d \theta=i [sin(\theta)-icos(\theta)]|_{\frac{3 \pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}=2i<br />
 
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There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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