A mode of frequency ##\nu## has energy ##E_n = h \nu##. In terms of photons, the interpretation that I have read several places, is that this correspond to ##n## photons of energy ##h \nu##. Furthermore, it is stated that the probabilty of finding ##n## photons at frequency ##\nu## is given by(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

$$p(n) = e^{-nh\nu}/Z,$$

where Z is the partition function (for example in: http://disciplinas.stoa.usp.br/pluginfile.php/48089/course/section/16461/qsp_chapter10-plank.pdf)

This correspond to Boltzmann statistics, and I'm a bit confused by this since photons are supposedly bosons. Should'nt this instead be Bose-Einstein statistics?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Why does photons of a given frequency satisfy the Boltzmann distribution?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**