A mode of frequency ##\nu## has energy ##E_n = h \nu##. In terms of photons, the interpretation that I have read several places, is that this correspond to ##n## photons of energy ##h \nu##. Furthermore, it is stated that the probabilty of finding ##n## photons at frequency ##\nu## is given by(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

$$p(n) = e^{-nh\nu}/Z,$$

where Z is the partition function (for example in: http://disciplinas.stoa.usp.br/pluginfile.php/48089/course/section/16461/qsp_chapter10-plank.pdf)

This correspond to Boltzmann statistics, and I'm a bit confused by this since photons are supposedly bosons. Should'nt this instead be Bose-Einstein statistics?

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# Why does photons of a given frequency satisfy the Boltzmann distribution?

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