aaaa202 said:
So is it all in all because even though (x,y,z) refers to a point where we could have J≠0 just as well as J=0, then the way we describe the volume current density it is already described by another coordinate system (x',y',z'), which completely has its own life and completely describes the volume current density. But wouldn't it be possible to just let (x,y,z)=(x',y',z') and then get easier results? Obviously not, since no one does it, but can you give a counterexample?
Let me try one more time. Your first question, initially, was why an x-derivative did not apply to J; the answer was that J does not depend on x, so an x-derivative of J is zero. Then you seem to have introduced a new question arising from the fact that (for some reason) your cited source now wants to take an x'-derivative. That is a _separate_ issue.
Let's go through my original electrostatic example again. I gave a 10-point approximation to the actual potential; there, there is NO x' anywhwere to be differentiated. We could have gotten a better approximation by using 100 points, even better by using a million points, etc., but in every case there would still be no issue about differentiation. To get an exact answer we need to take the limit of infinitely many infinitesimal charges --> we need an integral, and here it is:
U(x,y,z) = \int_0^1 \rho(w) f(x-w,y,z)\, dw,
where
f(X,Y,Z) = (X^2 + Y^2 + Z^2)^{-1/2}.
In the original example the charge density was constant (ρ(w) = 1 for 0 < w < 1) but we can work more generally. As before, we have
U_x(x,y,z) \equiv \frac{\partial}{\partial x} U(x,y,z) = \int_0^1 \rho(w) \frac{\partial}{\partial x} f(x-w,y,z) \, dw. If, for some reason, we would like to convert this to another form, we might try to manipulate the w-integration, using integration by parts, for example. So, let's do that: WARNING: new issue!
We have \partial f(x-w,y,z)/ \partial x = -\partial f(x-w,y,z)/\partial w, so
U_x(x,y,z) = -\int_0^1 \rho(w) \partial f(x-w,y,z)/\partial w \, dw<br />
= -\int_0^1 \partial [\rho(w) f(x-w,y,z)]/\partial w \, dw +<br />
\int_0^1 f(x-w,y,z) \partial \rho(w)/\partial w \, dw, which is just integration by parts. The first term just looks at the integrand \rho(w) f(x-w,y,z) at the boundary points w=0 and w=1, while the second term may (we hope) be a simpler thing to work with than the original integral. In the 3-dimensional case (where we have \rho (w_1,w_2,w_3) the boundary terms in the integration by parts will become a surface integral with respect to the other two variables w
2 and w
3, and so we might be able to link it to some physical law or characteristics involving surface integrals.
So, the outline is:
(1) the original problem did not involve derivatives with respect to x', y', z', because these were DUMMY variables, and the quantity U or E or B or whatever, does not contain any x', y', or z' in the final formula. This is no different from saying that I have \frac{d}{dx} \int_0^1 x^2 \, dx = 0, because the quantity \int_0^1 x^2 \, dx = 1/3 just does not contain x---that is, 1/3 is not a function of x. The fact that before getting the 1/3 we had a formula containing the symbol x is irrelevant: we could equally have asked for \frac{d}{dx} \int_0^1 w^2 \, dw because what name we choose for the dummy integration variable is irrelevant.
(2) For some type of integration expressions we can choose to manipulate the formula by moving the derivative wrt x into a derivative wrt the dummy variable, then doing integration by parts, for example. This issue is separate from (1).
There: that's my last words on this topic.
RGV