Peskin & Schroeder's proof of Wick's Theorem

emob2p
Messages
56
Reaction score
1
Hi,
I am stuck on a step Peskin & Schroeder give in their proof of Wick's Theorem (Intro to Quantum Field Theory, p 90). In the middle of the page when they consider the term with no contraction, it seems like in between the 1st and 2nd lines they somehow factor out the normal ordering operator. How is this legal? I've attached a bmp of what I'm talking about. Thanks

*Typo...There shouldn't be an equal sign after the last commutator in the bmp.
 

Attachments

Physics news on Phys.org
emob2p said:
Hi,
I am stuck on a step Peskin & Schroeder give in their proof of Wick's Theorem (Intro to Quantum Field Theory, p 90).
I think the step is far more complicated than it seems ; I think you have to work out first the commutator for each term of the kind:
| \phi_1^+, \phi_2^- \phi_3^-...\phi_m^+ |
which, by working out the distributivity of the commutator, equals:
| \phi_1^+, \phi_2^-| \phi_3^-... + \phi_2^-|\phi_1^+,\phi_3^-|\phi_4^- ...
Recognizing that the commutators are C-numbers, the remaining factors can be recognized to be in normal order, so you can go back to the N() notation, and you end up with the second term in the second line.
Sorry, I used | instead of brackets because it screwed up my inline latex
cheers,
Patrick.
 
Last edited:
That was my thought too, except let's say \phi_n = \phi_n^+ + \phi_n^-. Then \phi_2\phi_3 won't simply be \phi_2^-\phi_3^- + \phi_2^+\phi_3^+ because you'll have the cross terms.
 
Last edited:
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top