hello,
in my calculus introduction book, it is written:
Let a rational function: f(x) = \frac{{p(x)}}{{q(x)}} and a, a real number
If q(a) equals 0, but not p(a), then {\lim }\limits_{x \to a} f(x) does not exist.
however, while doing exercises on the internet, i found that:
{\lim...