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If f'[a]>0, is it possible that f[a]<=f[x] a for all other x's?

Why?

Having a problems visualize this, any help would be great

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- #1

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If f'[a]>0, is it possible that f[a]<=f[x] a for all other x's?

Why?

Having a problems visualize this, any help would be great

- #2

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- #3

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Poncho said:

Do you mean minima?

...and by the way, if it was a minima, f'(a) would be 0. So since f'(a)>0, what does that tell you about x<a?

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