Balancing Charges on Identical Spheres

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AI Thread Summary
Two identical metal spheres initially experience a 2.5N attractive force when 1.0m apart, indicating opposite charges. After transferring charge until they have equal net charge, they then repel with the same force. The discussion reveals confusion regarding the calculation of charges, with some participants incorrectly assuming the new charge on each sphere is (q1 - q2)/2 instead of the correct (q1 + q2)/2. The need for clarification on the relationship between the total charge and the individual charges is emphasized, particularly in the context of the forces involved. The conclusion highlights that since the initial force was attractive, the charges must be of opposite nature.
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Homework Statement




Two identical small metal spheres initially carry charges q_1 and q_2. When they're x=1.0m apart, they experience a 2.5N attractive force. Then they're brought together so charge moves from one to the other until they have the same net charge. They're again placed x=1.0m apart, and now they repel with a 2.5N force.

Homework Equations



F=kq1q2/r^2

The Attempt at a Solution



Alright, so this question seemed pretty easy but my answer isn't making any sense. First I solved for the net charge on the spheres after they had discharged,

F=kq3^2/r^2 ... q3=sqrt(Fr^2/k) = 1.667*10^-5C

Next I assumed that since the two spheres had balanced their charges, the original charges were 1.667*10^-5 +/- x.

Putting this back into the Coulomb's Law equation I got

F=k(1.667*10^-5 - x)(1.667*10^-5 + x)/r^2

But when I solved for x and then tried to sub it back into q1=(1.667*10^-5 - x) and q2=(1.667*10^-5 + x), both q1 and q2 were positive, which would not result in an attractive force.

Help please. =)
 
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Hi Tridius. welcome to PF.
In the first case, F = k*q1*q2/d^2.
In the second case, charge on each sphere is (q1 - q2)/2
So F= k*(q1 - q2)^2/d^2
Can you proceed now?
 
Thanks a lot, this should really help. What I don't understand though is that if the charges are now (q1-q2)/2, then why is the force k(q1-q2)^2/d^2? Where did the 2 in the denominator go?
 
Tridius said:
Thanks a lot, this should really help. What I don't understand though is that if the charges are now (q1-q2)/2, then why is the force k(q1-q2)^2/d^2? Where did the 2 in the denominator go?
The force should be
F = k(q1-q2)^2/4*d^2
 
I don't understand why each charge is (q1-q2)/2.
If it was, then the total charge would be 2*(q1-q2)/2 = q1-q2.
But we know the total charge is q1 + q2.
Looks like the charge on each must be (q1 + q2)/2.
 
Delphi51 said:
I don't understand why each charge is (q1-q2)/2.
If it was, then the total charge would be 2*(q1-q2)/2 = q1-q2.
But we know the total charge is q1 + q2.
Looks like the charge on each must be (q1 + q2)/2.
Since the force is attractive, the charges must be of opposite nature.
 
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