- #1
welovephysics
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Homework Statement
why there is a need to change π3 to π3 ' (which is inverse of reynold number)? (in 2nd picture)
Homework Equations
The Attempt at a Solution
why can we do so ? i was told that π1 = f( π2 , π3 , ...)
if we use π3' , which is this will change the original meaning of π1 = f( π2 , π3 , ...) , am i right ? IMO, this is wrong , there's no need to change π1 = f( π2 , π3 , ...) 3 to π1 = f( π2 , π3 , ...) 3 ' ...
can someone explain on it ? [/B]