# Buckingham theorem

## Homework Statement

why there is a need to change π3 to π3 ' (which is inverse of reynold number)???? (in 2nd picture)

## The Attempt at a Solution

why can we do so ? i was told that π1 = f( π2 , π3 , .......)
if we use π3' , which is this will change the original meaning of π1 = f( π2 , π3 , .......) , am i right ? IMO, this is wrong , there's no need to change π1 = f( π2 , π3 , .......) 3 to π1 = f( π2 , π3 , .......) 3 ' ...
can someone explain on it ?
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