Calculating magnetic flux of a rod

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SUMMARY

The forum discussion focuses on calculating the electromotive force (EMF) and velocity related to magnetic flux in a rod scenario. The magnetic field strength is given as B = 0.02T, with a length of L = 40 cm and an angular velocity of w = 10 rad/s. Two methods for solving the problems are presented: one using electric principles and another utilizing magnetic flux concepts, despite the absence of a defined area. The discussion emphasizes the validity of using an imaginary area to derive the same solution for both electromotive force and velocity calculations.

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  • Knowledge of basic physics equations: φ = BA and ε = -dφ(t)/dt
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yahelra
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Homework Statement


B = 0.02T
L = 40 cm
w = 10 rad/s
a: Electromotive force between O and C = ?
1 - Copy.jpeg


b: If electromotive force is the same - so what is the velocity?
2.jpeg
I found 2 ways of solution. See "3. The Attempt at a Solution "

Homework Equations


φ = BA
ε = -dφ(t)/dt

The Attempt at a Solution


So I found 2 ways:
1. What every one would do - by Electric:
sol.jpeg


2. By the magnetic flux. But wait - There is no area.
So I found that if I would take in problem a the area of what the rod had passed (part of a disc) I would get the exact solution.
1 - Copy.jpeg

1.jpeg


For problem b if I would take the area of a triangle I will get the solution too.My question - Why does the second way is also true? How can it be explained (For both problem a and b)?

Thanks a lot!
 
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Is that a line or a rod? The way the picture is presented it doesn't look like there is any flux, let alone a change in flux. Did you give us the entire problem statement?
 
Last edited:
I gave you the entire statement.
And you are right, as I wrote there are no magnetic flux because there is no area.

I meant that I've found that we can take an imaginary area and it will give us the same solution. ( See picture -0.016 V)

My questions are why is it true and how can it be explained?
 

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