Calculating Orbital Angular Momentum: What Is the Correct Answer?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers around a calculation of orbital angular momentum, where the initial integral calculation yielded an incorrect result of (3*i*pi)/16 instead of the expected 1/2i. A key mistake identified was the omission of the sin(θ) term in the integrand, which is crucial for the integration over solid angles. The correct approach involves using algebraic manipulation and the orthonormality property of spherical harmonics to arrive at the correct answer. It is also noted that the probability can be calculated directly from the sum of the squares of the coefficients, which must equal unity. The conversation emphasizes the importance of careful attention to detail in integral calculations.
Martin89
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Homework Statement


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Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


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Hi All,

My problem is that when I calculate this integral or use software to do it for me I get (3*i*pi)/16, when I've been told that the answer is 1/2i giving a probability of 1/4. Would someone be able to point out where my mistake is.

Thanks
 

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You are missing a ##\sin\theta## in the integrand, ##d\Omega =\sin \theta d\theta d\phi##.
 
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kuruman said:
You are missing a ##\sin\theta## in the integrand, ##d\Omega =\sin \theta d\theta d\phi##.
So I have, thanks for the spot!
 
At some point you will learn to do such integrals without actually integrating. You can easily show with a bit of algebra that$$ -\sqrt{\frac{3}{8\pi}}\sin\theta \sin \phi=\frac{1}{2i} \left(Y_{1,1}+Y_{1,-1}\right)~;~~~-\sqrt{\frac{3}{8\pi}}i\cos\theta=-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}Y_{1,0}$$so that $$X_{1,1}=\frac{1}{2i} \left(Y_{1,1}+Y_{1,-1}\right)-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}Y_{1,0}$$ and then use the orthonormality property of the spherical harmonics, ##\int Y^*_{l,m}Y_{l',m'}d\Omega=\delta_{ll'}\delta_{mm'}## to get the answer. Clearly, only the integral involving ##Y_{1,1}## is non-zero.
 
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kuruman said:
At some point you will learn to do such integrals without actually integrating. You can easily show with a bit of algebra that$$ -\sqrt{\frac{3}{8\pi}}\sin\theta \sin \phi=\frac{1}{2i} \left(Y_{1,1}+Y_{1,-1}\right)~;~~~-\sqrt{\frac{3}{8\pi}}i\cos\theta=-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}Y_{1,0}$$so that $$X_{1,1}=\frac{1}{2i} \left(Y_{1,1}+Y_{1,-1}\right)-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}Y_{1,0}$$ and then use the orthonormality property of the spherical harmonics, ##\int Y^*_{l,m}Y_{l',m'}d\Omega=\delta_{ll'}\delta_{mm'}## to get the answer. Clearly, only the integral involving ##Y_{1,1}## is non-zero.

Or I can calculate the probability directly from the the sum of the squares of the coefficients as they must equal unity. Thanks again for the help!
 
Kindly see the attached pdf. My attempt to solve it, is in it. I'm wondering if my solution is right. My idea is this: At any point of time, the ball may be assumed to be at an incline which is at an angle of θ(kindly see both the pics in the pdf file). The value of θ will continuously change and so will the value of friction. I'm not able to figure out, why my solution is wrong, if it is wrong .
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