Calculating Orbital Angular Momentum: What Is the Correct Answer?

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Martin89
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Homework Statement


Printed exam question 6(a) on orbital angular momentum: electron with l = 1 and Lz = h, giving Y(1,1) = -sqrt(3/8π) sin θ e^(iφ); asks probability of measuring Lx = h, with X(1,1) = -sqrt(3/8π)(sin θ sin φ + i cos θ) given.


Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Handwritten notes on lined paper: text saying the inner product of two states is interpreted as the probability amplitude for state to collapse into another, followed by a double integral of conjugate wavefunction times wavefunction over angles, then a simplified integral with a 3/(8π) prefactor and sine and cosine terms.

Hi All,

My problem is that when I calculate this integral or use software to do it for me I get (3*i*pi)/16, when I've been told that the answer is 1/2i giving a probability of 1/4. Would someone be able to point out where my mistake is.

Thanks
 
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  • Printed exam question 6(a) on orbital angular momentum: electron with l = 1 and definite Lz = ħ, angular wavefunction Y(1,1) = -sqrt(3/8π) sin θ e^(iφ), and asks probability of measuring Lx = ħ, with X(1,1) = -sqrt(3/8π)(sin θ sin φ + i cos θ) given.
    Q6.png
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  • Printed exam question 6(a) on orbital angular momentum: electron with l = 1 and Lz = h, giving Y(1,1) = -sqrt(3/8π) sin θ e^(iφ); asks probability of measuring Lx = h, with X(1,1) = -sqrt(3/8π)(sin θ sin φ + i cos θ) given.
    Q6.png
    27.3 KB · Views: 880
  • Handwritten notes on lined paper: text saying the inner product of two states is interpreted as the probability amplitude for state to collapse into another, followed by a double integral of conjugate wavefunction times wavefunction over angles, then a simplified integral with a 3/(8π) prefactor and sine and cosine terms.
    20180411_151430.jpg
    14.1 KB · Views: 790
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You are missing a ##\sin\theta## in the integrand, ##d\Omega =\sin \theta d\theta d\phi##.
 
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kuruman said:
You are missing a ##\sin\theta## in the integrand, ##d\Omega =\sin \theta d\theta d\phi##.
So I have, thanks for the spot!
 
At some point you will learn to do such integrals without actually integrating. You can easily show with a bit of algebra that$$ -\sqrt{\frac{3}{8\pi}}\sin\theta \sin \phi=\frac{1}{2i} \left(Y_{1,1}+Y_{1,-1}\right)~;~~~-\sqrt{\frac{3}{8\pi}}i\cos\theta=-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}Y_{1,0}$$so that $$X_{1,1}=\frac{1}{2i} \left(Y_{1,1}+Y_{1,-1}\right)-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}Y_{1,0}$$ and then use the orthonormality property of the spherical harmonics, ##\int Y^*_{l,m}Y_{l',m'}d\Omega=\delta_{ll'}\delta_{mm'}## to get the answer. Clearly, only the integral involving ##Y_{1,1}## is non-zero.
 
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kuruman said:
At some point you will learn to do such integrals without actually integrating. You can easily show with a bit of algebra that$$ -\sqrt{\frac{3}{8\pi}}\sin\theta \sin \phi=\frac{1}{2i} \left(Y_{1,1}+Y_{1,-1}\right)~;~~~-\sqrt{\frac{3}{8\pi}}i\cos\theta=-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}Y_{1,0}$$so that $$X_{1,1}=\frac{1}{2i} \left(Y_{1,1}+Y_{1,-1}\right)-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}Y_{1,0}$$ and then use the orthonormality property of the spherical harmonics, ##\int Y^*_{l,m}Y_{l',m'}d\Omega=\delta_{ll'}\delta_{mm'}## to get the answer. Clearly, only the integral involving ##Y_{1,1}## is non-zero.

Or I can calculate the probability directly from the the sum of the squares of the coefficients as they must equal unity. Thanks again for the help!