Dipole moment of non-uniform surface charged sphere

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating the dipole moment of a non-uniform surface charge distribution on a sphere with a charge density of σ = σ₀ cos(θ). The initial approach to integrate over the surface area using the incorrect surface element led to a zero result due to symmetry. Participants clarify that the correct surface element in spherical coordinates is dA = 2πR² sin(θ) dθ, and emphasize the importance of including the z component of the position vector in the integrand. The final formulation for the dipole moment involves integrating the product of the charge density and the z component of the position vector. Understanding the symmetry and proper integration limits is crucial for obtaining a non-zero dipole moment.
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I'm trying to find the dipole moment of a non-uniform surface charge distribution on a sphere of radius a:

The surface charge distribution is:
\sigma = \sigma_{0} cos \theta
where theta is the polar angle.

Here is what I did:
\vec{p} = \int\vec{r}\sigma dA
= \int r \sigma_{0} cos \theta (2\pi r dr d\theta)

and I'm thinking r should be integrated from 0 to a and theta integrated from -pi/2 to pi/2, but I'm not sure. Please help; thanks.
 
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Hold on.
What is the surface element in spherical coordinates??

Daniel.
 
dextercioby said:
Hold on.
What is the surface element in spherical coordinates??

Daniel.

Ok I see. Should I use: r dr d\theta ?
 
dA is not 2 \pi r dr d \theta, how could the surface element depend on r ?

try dA = 2 \pi R^2 sin \theta d \theta
and go do some reading on 3D integral
 
vincentchan said:
dA is not 2 \pi r dr d \theta, how could the surface element depend on r ?

try dA = 2 \pi R^2 sin \theta d \theta
and go do some reading on 3D integral

I get 0 for the answer if I do it like you said:

\int a \sigma_{0} cos\theta (2\pi a^2 sin\theta d\theta)
= 2\pi a^3 \sigma_{0} \int sin\theta cos\theta d\theta = 0 theta ranges from -pi/2 to pi/2
 
people measure theta from 0 to pi

if your question define theta like you said, you will get zero anyway because the surface charge is symmetric...(save you some time to do the integral)
 
meteorologist1 said:
I get 0 for the answer if I do it like you said:

\int a \sigma_{0} cos\theta (2\pi a^2 sin\theta d\theta)
= 2\pi a^3 \sigma_{0} \int sin\theta cos\theta d\theta = 0 theta ranges from -pi/2 to pi/2


You miss the z component of the position vector from your integrand and you have to integral from 0 to pi. Theta is the angle of the position vector with respect to the z axis.


p_z=\int_{0}^{\pi}{\sigma* z* dA } = \int_{0}^{\pi}{(\sigma_0 \cos{\theta})*(acos{\theta})*(2\pi a^2 \sin{\theta}d\theta)}

ehild
 
may you explain it. I didn't get why z component is here.
 
  • #10
Majid said:
may you explain it. I didn't get why z component is here.
Remember the definition of dipole moment.

\vec{p} = \int {\sigma \vec{r} dA }

Because of symmetry, the dipole moment has got only z component here. The z component of the eq. above is:

p_z = \int {\sigma z dA}

ehild
 
  • #11
ok, thank you.
 
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