david456103 said:
let's consider the problem when a ball initially at rest on a surface with friction is given a horizontal impulse. According to some online sources, the ball will eventually attain a maximum speed after it is given the impulse. However, this makes absolutely no sense to me; isn't the friction opposing the motion, causing the velocity to strictly decrease?
The constraint that static friction imposes is that the point on the ball that is in contact with the ground is instantaneously stationary, i.e., has v=0. As said above, the direction of the friction can be either way-- whatever is necessary to achieve v=0. Now this is not a simple constraint, because friction is a force, and v is a velocity, and force does not produce velocity it produces acceleration and torque. But the thing you can "take to the bank" is that the friction will produce a horizontal time dependent force, call it F(t), that is whatever is required to insure the point that touches the ground always has v=0. That constraint is made useful by connecting it to the speed of the ball V and the rotation rate of the ball W, which thus must have the simple connection V=R*W, if R is the radius of the ball. Then you look at whatever other forces are on the ball, and write the free-body diagram for the net force that controls V, and the net torque that controls W, and then F(t) will be whatever it takes to allow V=R*W to prevail at all times. So this will depend on what other forces are in play, and what torque they represent.
If the problem is described in terms of impulses, instead of F(t), it just means that you are integrating F(t) over time to get an impulse, and you are imagining that the time is very short. The logic is the same-- the impulse of lateral momentum, and the impulse of angular momentum, both have to be specified, and you then assert there is also an impulse of both from the friction, and its value is whatever is required to allow V=R*W to hold after the impulses have been applied. That will suffice to tell you the impulse of lateral momentum coming from friction (since the impulse of angular momentum will just be R times that, with whatever sign is required to make it all work-- which is the answer to your question).
Note that after the impulses are over, the ball rolls at constant speed, and this will indeed be the maximum speed it attains. There is no static friction at this point, not in the idealized case.