Effortlessly Evaluate Integral Involving Sec with Limits -pi/3 to 0

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The discussion focuses on evaluating the integral of 2(sec x)^3 from -π/3 to 0. The initial approach involves substitution with u=sec x and v=tan x, leading to the expression 2(sec x tan x) - 2∫(sec x)(tan^2 x) dx. The confusion arises regarding how the integration of the first part is completed while still having the second part to evaluate. Clarification is provided on moving derivatives between variables under the integral, which introduces a boundary term. The final steps include integrating sec x and sec x tan^2 x, emphasizing the importance of understanding the substitution method.
kuahji
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evaluate

\int2(sec x)^3 with the limits as -pi/3 to 0

I tried all sorts of things from breaking it apart to substitution, but known of what I tried work.

The book shows setting u=sec x & v=tan x

Then it shows the first step as 2 (sec x tan x) - 2 \int(sec x) * (tan x)^2 dx then evaluate both parts to -pi/3 to 0.

Which is really what I'm not understanding. How did they integrate the first part & then still have the next part? I'm also not seeing how u & v come into play.

Guess I'm just plain lost on this one.
 
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Substitution

As Griffith's puts it, paraphrased, you can move the derivative from one variable to the other under an integral, and you'll just pick up a minus sign and a boundary term.

Thus the equation:
\int_a^buv'dx=\left.uv\right|_a^b-\int_a^bu'vdx
 
\int\sec x(\tan^{2}x+1)dx
\int\sec x\tan^{2}xdx+\int\sec xdx

u=\sec x
du=\sec x \tan x dx

dV=\tan^{2}xdx
V=\sec x
 
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Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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