The electric field in a conductor goes to zero...or so my book says (which I'm inclined to believe). But I don't really understand why. I understand the polarization of the conductor in question, but how does this negate the electric field in the conductor? The book says something about the electric field made by the polarized charges nullifies the electric field that is passing through....what if the conductor simply doesn't have enough electrons/protons to match the electric field in terms of charge? If anybody could please clarify this a bit I would be most grateful.