Energy conservation paradox for constrained mass

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around the energy conservation paradox involving a mass connected to a frictionless rail via a massless rod. When the rod is moved from a vertical to a horizontal position, the work calculated suggests lifting the mass, yet the mass remains stationary at the center, leading to confusion about whether work is done. Participants clarify that since the mass does not move, no work is performed against gravity, despite the rod's movement. The conversation highlights that if the rod were not massless, work would be done due to its contribution to the system's energy. Ultimately, the consensus is that the paradox arises from misinterpretations of forces acting on the system and the nature of work in constrained scenarios.
Fantasist
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Consider the following setup (see illustration above): a mass m is connected to a circular section of a rail by means of a rod (with negligible mass) of length r, where r is the radius of the rail. The connection point P of the rod can move frictionless along the rail but is mounted such that the rod is always perpendicular to the rail, i.e. the mass is always at the center of the rail circle.
The rail is fixed to the ground and the mass subject to gravity. Initially, the rod is vertical (i.e. the weight of the mass fully supported by the rail). Now we push the rod along the rail until it is horizontal. The question is what work has to be done to do this? Let's see. The component of the gravitational force acting along the rail is given by

F(\theta) = m*g*sin(\theta)

where \theta is the angle from the vertical.
The work associated with moving the rod through an angle \pi/2 is then

W = \int F(s) ds = r*\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2} F(\theta) d\theta = m*g*r*\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}sin(\theta) d\theta = m*g*r

This means the work required to move the rod from the vertical to the horizontal corresponds to the work of lifting the mass trough a height difference r. However, the mass m has always stayed in the same location, so no work against gravity was done at all.

How is this paradox resolved?
 

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I don't see how this is paradoxical. The mass never moved from the center, and therefore did no work. It is still located at mgr. I think you are confusing the path taken by the mass at the center with the path taken by the rod.

If the rod were not mass-less, then work would have been done by the rod's contribution to the system's energy. Work-Energy theorem states the projection of a force on a path is equal to the work. The mass at the center is not traversing a path, and hence there is no projection beyond the point where the rod is vertical.

If however, you were to hang the mass from the rod so the rod was attached to a ceiling, you would have the mass at the center performing work. It would follow the path of a simple pendulum.
 
Hi Fantasist! :smile:
Fantasist said:
The component of the gravitational force acting along the rail …

Sorry, but this is meaningless :redface:

the gravitational force acts through the mass m, and has nothing to do with the rail.​

(If you mean the reaction force, it is always perpendicular to the frictionless rail, and so does no work.)
 
If the system can remain in equilibrium for any value of ##\theta##, your force ##F(\theta)## must correspond to the static friction between the rod and the rail.

When you move the rod, you do work against the friction force. End of paradox.

But I predict this thread will end up like https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=731402
 
AlephZero said:
If the system can remain in equilibrium for any value of ##\theta##, your force ##F(\theta)## must correspond to the static friction between the rod and the rail.

When you move the rod, you do work against the friction force.

It is assumed there is no friction (I have edited my post above in this sense). Clearly in this case the system can not stay in equilibrium for ##\theta >0 ## unless you apply an appropriate force along the rail at the connection point P. So in order to bring the rod from the vertical to the horizontal you have to apply work.
 
You may be moving the rod, but no work is being done. The rod is massless and does not contribute to the energy. Only the central mass has mass and it isn't moving.
 
tiny-tim said:
Hi Fantasist! :smile:


Sorry, but this is meaningless :redface:

the gravitational force acts through the mass m, and has nothing to do with the rail.​

The mass is connected to the rail via the rod.
 
jaytech said:
You may be moving the rod, but no work is being done. The rod is massless and does not contribute to the energy. Only the central mass has mass and it isn't moving.

The rod itself is massless, but it carries the full weight of the mass m. And this weight is not fully supported anymore by the rail if you move the rod out of the vertical. So you need to apply an additional force to support the mass m.
 
tiny-tim said:
Sorry, but this is meaningless :redface:

the gravitational force acts through the mass m, and has nothing to do with the rail.​

(If you mean the reaction force, it is always perpendicular to the frictionless rail, and so does no work.)

Fantasist said:
The mass is connected to the rail via the rod.

so what?

the weight of the mass acts only on the mass

how can the weight of the mass act on the rail?
 
  • #10
tiny-tim said:
so what?

the weight of the mass acts only on the mass

how can the weight of the mass act on the rail?

See my previous post.
 
  • #11
What everyone in this thread is saying is that due to the position of the rod (BELOW the mass at the center), and the fact that the rod is massless, the rod is not producing any kind of force. This diagram at all points is equivalent to the mass at the center "floating" in midair.
 
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  • #12
you are fundamentally misunderstanding what it means for a force to act on a body :redface:

there are two forces acting on the mass:
i] its weight, mg vertically down
ii] the reaction force from the rod, mg vertically up​
these forces balance, and so the mass stays where it is

there are three forces acting on the rod:
i] its weight, which we can take to be zero
ii] the reaction force from the mass, mg vertically down
iii] the reaction force from the rail, acting radially​
these forces do not balance, and so the rod moves
 
  • #13
If the rod has no mass, then it takes no force to move the rod.
 
  • #14
Isn't there a moment about the outer end of the rod (due to the fixing on the rail)? This will produce a force at the mass end of the rod which, along with the normal force, would produce a force equal and opposite to the weight.
 
  • #15
To OP:
You assume that a tangential force is necessary to move the bar "up", in horizontal position.
But think it the other way. If the bar is initially horizontal, at rest, and you let it go will it "fall" in vertical position? Why would it do this? The potential energy does not change if it moves a little down the rail, does it? Of course, I mean in the conditions imposed in the scenario.

You made up a system whose potential energy is the same for any configuration. And which can have no kinetic energy. Like a massless ball on a horizontal surface. Try to apply a force to this and see what happens. :smile:
 
  • #16
Fantasist said:
The component of the gravitational force acting along the rail is given by

F(\theta) = m*g*sin(\theta)
I assume that this is the force which resists moving the stand along the loop? If so, then its value is clearly 0.
 
  • #17
DaleSpam said:
I assume that this is the force which resists moving the stand along the loop? If so, then its value is clearly 0.


The rail must certainly exert a force mg in an upwards direction on the rod, to keep the rod and the mass from moving. That force has a component mgsin\theta in the direction of the rail that is not 0.

At first sight it looks impossible that the frictionless rail could exert such a force. The solution is that the part of the rod in contact with the rail must have a finite length to keep the mass from falling. The force from the rail on the upper part of the rod will be in a different direction than the force on the bottom part, so the sum of those forces can have a component that is in the direction of the rail at any point where the rod touches it.
 
  • #18
Khashishi said:
If the rod has no mass, then it takes no force to move the rod.

DaleSpam said:
I assume that this is the force which resists moving the stand along the loop? If so, then its value is clearly 0.

yeah, exactly. The mass in the middle is supported due to tension in the rod, which ultimately comes from the fact that the end of the rod is fixed to the rail. If we move the rod along the rail, we are not moving the mass in the middle, and therefore we do no work. In this situation, we could only do work by a) accelerating the mass, or b) moving the mass through a gravitational field. In this case, the only mass is the mass in the middle, and it is staying in the same place, so no work is done.

It does seem weird. But there is no paradox. It seems weird because the rod is assumed to be very light, and also able to carry high tension (and stresses, when the rod is moved to be non-vertical). Intuitively in real life, if we see something which can carry large stresses, it is usually quite heavy as well. (except maybe spider silk).
 
  • #19
willem2 said:
The solution is that the part of the rod in contact with the rail must have a finite length to keep the mass from falling. The force from the rail on the upper part of the rod will be in a different direction than the force on the bottom part, so the sum of those forces can have a component that is in the direction of the rail at any point where the rod touches it.

Yes, and this is basically the same issue as in the previous thread.
 
  • #20
willem2 said:
The rail must certainly exert a force mg in an upwards direction on the rod, to keep the rod and the mass from moving. That force has a component mgsin\theta in the direction of the rail that is not 0.
Agreed, but we are not interested in that force. We are interested in the additional external force that must be applied to rotate the rod. That force is clearly 0.

willem2 said:
At first sight it looks impossible that the frictionless rail could exert such a force. The solution is that the part of the rod in contact with the rail must have a finite length to keep the mass from falling. The force from the rail on the upper part of the rod will be in a different direction than the force on the bottom part, so the sum of those forces can have a component that is in the direction of the rail at any point where the rod touches it.
Yes. For concreteness, let's assume that the structure consists of two pairs of frictionless ball bearings, each located an angle of ##\phi## away from the angle of the rod which is itself at an angle ##\theta## from the vertical. Then the forces at the bearings are:
##F_A=-mg \csc(2\phi) \sin(\theta-\phi)##
##F_B=mg \csc(2\phi) \sin(\theta+\phi)##

Each of these forces individually has no component tangent to the constraint, but because they are not parallel to each other, their sum cancels out both of the components of the gravitational force. Those forces are constraint forces and do not require any work, and neither oppose any external force attempting to rotate the rod.
 

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  • #21
AlephZero said:
If the system can remain in equilibrium for any value of ##\theta##, your force ##F(\theta)## must correspond to the static friction between the rod and the rail.

When you move the rod, you do work against the friction force. End of paradox.
This is correct. The only work done in this case is against friction. As the friction goes to 0, so does the work.

I think that the confusion he has is not understanding that the system could be in equilibrium with no friction and non-zero ##\theta##.
 
  • #22
If there is no elastic energy stored in the system and the rod is massless then the GPE of the mass does not change so no work can be done.
This is the sort of problem you get when you try to combine ideal components in a situation and then try to treat it as if it's non-ideal. There are a million such phoney paradoxes.
You get the same thing with mathematical 'proofs' that 1=2 etc. etc.
 
  • #24
BruceW said:
we could only do work by a) accelerating the mass, or b) moving the mass through a gravitational field. In this case, the only mass is the mass in the middle, and it is staying in the same place, so no work is done.

That is undoubtedly true for a free, unconstrained mass (where the work is done directly on the mass itself), but in this case the mass is externally constrained, and the state of the mechanical system can only change by moving the piece connecting the rod with the rail along the latter.
You have to remember that potential energy of a system is defined as work done over a path that changes the state of the system. But this may not necessarily imply that this change involves a movement of the mass. Saying that no work is done because the mass stays in place would be a circular conclusion in general.
 
  • #25
willem2 said:
At first sight it looks impossible that the frictionless rail could exert such a force. The solution is that the part of the rod in contact with the rail must have a finite length to keep the mass from falling.

What do you mean by 'keep the mass from falling'? Preventing the rod from breaking off? Just assume (for the sake of this argument) that the material is strong enough so that everything keeps intact even for an infinitesimally small contact area. Such an assumption is just part of the constraint.
 
  • #26
DaleSpam said:
For concreteness, let's assume that the structure consists of two pairs of frictionless ball bearings, each located an angle of ##\phi## away from the angle of the rod which is itself at an angle ##\theta## from the vertical. Then the forces at the bearings are:
##F_A=-mg \csc(2\phi) \sin(\theta-\phi)##
##F_B=mg \csc(2\phi) \sin(\theta+\phi)##

Each of these forces individually has no component tangent to the constraint, but because they are not parallel to each other, their sum cancels out both of the components of the gravitational force. Those forces are constraint forces and do not require any work, and neither oppose any external force attempting to rotate the rod.

1) How did you arrive at your equations for ##F_A## and ##F_B##?
2) Why do the equations for ##F_A## and ##F_B## have different signs, but in your drawing the vectors point essentially in the same direction?
3) Why do your equations not depend on the length of the rod? Surely it should make a difference for your argument if e.g. the rod is shorter than the radius of curvature of the rail.

As it is, your argument is less than clear.
 
  • #27
Fantasist said:
Saying that no work is done because the mass stays in place would be a circular conclusion in general.
No work is done, because there is no force parallel to displacement.

Fantasist said:
What do you mean by 'keep the mass from falling'?
The weight of the mass must be balanced, if the mass stays static.
 
  • #28
Fantasist said:
Why do the equations for ##F_A## and ##F_B## have different signs, but in your drawing the vectors point essentially in the same direction?
Arrow directions usually just indicate the positive direction. The sign of the force then tells you the actual direction of the force, with respect to that convention.

Fantasist said:
Surely it should make a difference for your argument if e.g. the rod is shorter than the radius of curvature of the rail.
In your problem statement you made them equal.
 
  • #29
Fantasist said:
1) How did you arrive at your equations for ##F_A## and ##F_B##?
2) Why do the equations for ##F_A## and ##F_B## have different signs, but in your drawing the vectors point essentially in the same direction?
3) Why do your equations not depend on the length of the rod? Surely it should make a difference for your argument if e.g. the rod is shorter than the radius of curvature of the rail.

As it is, your argument is less than clear.

Because the same forces would apply whatever the radius of the circle. All circles are similar figures.
 
  • #30
Fantasist said:
That is undoubtedly true for a free, unconstrained mass (where the work is done directly on the mass itself), but in this case the mass is externally constrained, and the state of the mechanical system can only change by moving the piece connecting the rod with the rail along the latter.
You have to remember that potential energy of a system is defined as work done over a path that changes the state of the system. But this may not necessarily imply that this change involves a movement of the mass. Saying that no work is done because the mass stays in place would be a circular conclusion in general.
Work is either done to be stored as potential energy, or to be given to the kinetic energy of some matter. When the rod moves along the rail, no potential energy is stored, and no kinetic energy is gained by any matter. Therefore, you do zero work to move the rod. simples :) Maybe you would call this a circular conclusion, but I would call it self-consistent physics. The work-energy principle for a point-like mass is:
Work = \int_{t1}^{t2} \vec{F} \cdot \vec{v} dt
And in this case, it is zero, because the only significant mass is the one in the middle, which has zero velocity for all time. Further, the work done to store potential energy is simply equal to the potential energy stored. And in this case, we're implicitly assuming no potential energy is stored, since the rod is inelastic and cannot be deformed. Therefore, there is zero work converted to potential energy. So overall, no work is done.
 
  • #31
Fantasist said:
... You have to remember that potential energy of a system is defined as work done over a path that changes the state of the system...
coming back to this point specifically, I don't really understand what you mean by this. How are you defining "a path that changes the state of the system" ? If you mean something like "the path of the connection point of the rod with the rail", then I challenge the physical meaning to this. Why is such a thing physically meaningful? Why would you choose that path, and not any other arbitrary path? For example, you could choose the path of any other point on the rod, and you would get a different answer for your 'work done'. This is a big hint that choosing these kinds of paths is not correct. The correct path to calculate the KE gained by some matter is the path that the matter itself takes. In this case, the only matter with significant mass is the one mass in the middle, whose position is constant, so the KE it gains is zero.
 
  • #32
Fantasist said:
That is undoubtedly true for a free, unconstrained mass (where the work is done directly on the mass itself), but in this case the mass is externally constrained, and the state of the mechanical system can only change by moving the piece connecting the rod with the rail along the latter.
You have to remember that potential energy of a system is defined as work done over a path that changes the state of the system. But this may not necessarily imply that this change involves a movement of the mass. Saying that no work is done because the mass stays in place would be a circular conclusion in general.
Constraints don't do work and don't have potential energy. In the scenario you posted there is only gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy, and both are constant. The constraint does not change either, nor does it add any additional energy.

Furthermore, the Lagrangian of your system is ##L=-mgh##, which is clearly symmetric wrt time. Therefore there is a conserved energy, per Noether's theorem.
 
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  • #33
Fantasist said:
1) How did you arrive at your equations for ##F_A## and ##F_B##?
I simply used Newton's 2nd law. Since the center of mass is not changing we have ##\Sigma F = m a = 0##. Breaking that up into components gives two equations which can be solved for the magnitudes of the two constraint forces. I can work it out step-by-step if you need.

Fantasist said:
2) Why do the equations for ##F_A## and ##F_B## have different signs, but in your drawing the vectors point essentially in the same direction?
As A.T. already mentioned, the illustrated direction merely establishes my convention that positive forces point inwards and negative forces point outwards. Note, that whether or not ##F_A## and ##F_B## actually point in nearly opposite directions also depends on ##\theta \pm \phi##.

Fantasist said:
3) Why do your equations not depend on the length of the rod?
Why should they? The mass is stationary regardless of the length of the rod.

Fantasist said:
Surely it should make a difference for your argument if e.g. the rod is shorter than the radius of curvature of the rail.
Yes, that would indeed be a different scenario and require a different calculation. Note that in that different scenario the mass would be moving which would introduce a change in KE and PE.
 
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  • #34
DaleSpam said:
You still seem to be completely confounded about how to use constraints. Constraints don't do work

I am perfectly aware that constraints do no work. But tangential to the rail there are no constraints. In order to neutralize the gravitational force m*g*sin(\theta) tangential to the rail, it would take either friction or some obstacle (i,e, a surface component transverse to the rail).

DaleSpam said:
I simply used Newton's 2nd law. Since the center of mass is not changing we have ##\Sigma F = m a = 0##. Breaking that up into components gives two equations which can be solved for the magnitudes of the two constraint forces. I can work it out step-by-step if you need.

Yes please.
 
  • #35
Fantasist said:
In order to neutralize the gravitational force m*g*sin(\theta) tangential to the rail, it would take either friction or some obstacle ...
...or two radial forces at θ±ϕ which both have non-zero tangential components w.r.t to the radius at θ.
 
  • #36
As sophiecentaur and BruceW pointed out, there is no energy going in or out of this system and therefore no work is done when you move the rail/rod. If the rod had mass, then the work done would be equivalent to the change in strain energy in the rod as you moved the rail.
 
  • #37
Fantasist said:
But tangential to the rail there are no constraints. In order to neutralize the gravitational force m*g*sin(\theta) tangential to the rail, it would take either friction or some obstacle (i,e, a surface component transverse to the rail).

To get some sort of a solution to the problem, DaleSpam changed the problem, and made the "point" contact between the rod and the rail into two separated points.

That solution works mathematically, but only in the special case where the mass is at the center of the circle. But as a "real world" solution it is impractical, because as ##\phi \rightarrow 0## the two forces both ##\rightarrow \infty## (positive in opposite directions) but the difference betwen them stays finite and equal to ##mg## upwards.

So really, all this is shadow-boxing with something physically unrealistic, and being an engineer not a theoretical physicist, I'm not very interested in believing six impossible things before breakfast every day!

If the rod is a different length and mass is not at the center of the circle, the paradox goes away, because there is no equilibrium solution without friction (even for DaleSpam's change to the original problem) except when the rod is vertical, and the gravitational potential energy of the mass does work as the system moves to an equilibrium position (there are two of them, one stable and one unstable).

DaleSpam's solution only "works" because in the free body diagram of the mass, rod, and two contact points, the three force vectors (two at the rail and the weight of the mass) all pass through the same point (the center of the circle). If you change the length of the rod, this can not happen except when the rod is vertical, and there will always be a moment acting on the mass+rod to rotate it around the circle to its equilibrium position.

You could find an equilibrium solution for one particular angle ##\theta## by replacing ##\phi## by two different angles ##\phi_1## and ##\phi_2##, but by symmetry is it clear that there is no solution like that which is correct for all values of ##\theta##. When ##\theta = 0##, ##\phi_1 = \phi_2##.
 
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  • #38
Fantasist said:
But tangential to the rail there are no constraints. In order to neutralize the gravitational force m*g*sin(\theta) tangential to the rail, it would take either friction or some obstacle (i,e, a surface component transverse to the rail).
No, it doesn't. That is the whole point of what I showed above, and we have discussed similar concepts previously. Because you are constraining both the position and the direction of the arm you can cancel out the gravitational force completely without a tangential force at any point.

Fantasist said:
Yes please.
See the previous post for a graphic showing the directions of the forces. Using Newton's 2nd law and noting that a=0 we write one expression for the component of the forces parallel to the arm:
## mg \cos(\theta) - F_A \cos(\phi) - F_B \cos(\phi)=0##
and another expression for the component of the forces perpendicular to the arm:
## mg \sin(\theta) + F_A \sin(\phi) - F_B \sin(\phi)=0##

This is two equations in two unknowns, so we can solve for ##F_A## and ##F_B## to get:
$$F_A=\frac{mg}{2}\frac{-\cos(\phi) \sin(\theta)+\cos(\theta) \sin(\phi)}{\cos(\phi)\sin(\phi)}$$ $$F_B=\frac{mg}{2}\frac{\cos(\phi) \sin(\theta)+\cos(\theta) \sin(\phi)}{\cos(\phi)\sin(\phi)}$$
Which simplifies to the above expressions.
 
  • #39
AlephZero said:
To get some sort of a solution to the problem, DaleSpam changed the problem, and made the "point" contact between the rod and the rail into two separated points.
I didn't change the problem at all. I analyzed a standard idealized mechanism for providing both a path (force) constraint and a direction (torque) constraint. A point contact cannot do that, and the drawing in the OP clearly shows that a point contact is not assumed. The OP did not specify the mechanism, so I chose the simplest such mechanism without altering the scenario.

Your other comments about the impracticality of such a system are, of course, correct. However, the things you mention were explicit parts of the OP and I maintained them in my analysis precisely to provide a faithful answer to the OP's problem.
 
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  • #40
Hi Fantasist, this comment by AlephZero got me thinking:
AlephZero said:
as ##\phi \rightarrow 0## the two forces both ##\rightarrow \infty## (positive in opposite directions) but the difference betwen them stays finite and equal to ##mg## upwards.
I may have an alternative explanation which could help. I need to work through it and see if the explanation is valid, but if it is then it may be a different way of looking at the problem which is more similar to your though process and perhaps more understandable to you.
 
  • #41
This ihas turned into a futile set of arguments now. Are we not discussing an ideal situation? If we are, then how could any work be done if the height of the mass doesn't change? Whatever maths you care to apply to the situation, if you don't get the answer Zero, then you've done the Maths wrong.
 
  • #42
I would agree with sophiecentaur, which is why I've not added any more comments. But I guess the OP wants to see a solution to something that is similar to his original question (and I'm still not sure exactly what that is). So if anyone can give him this, then that's fine with me.
 
  • #43
BruceW said:
I would agree with sophiecentaur, which is why I've not added any more comments. But I guess the OP wants to see a solution to something that is similar to his original question (and I'm still not sure exactly what that is). So if anyone can give him this, then that's fine with me.

I thought SophieCentaur came pretty close in post 14. Here's my try:

It is clear the ideal attachment point is exerting an upward force on the mass. If one views this interaction in isolation then, as the attachment point is moving, some amount of work is done.

But the interaction is not in isolation. The ideal attachment point is also exerting a torque. As it moves, the attachment point also rotates in the direction of the torque. As it rotates, some amount of work is recovered.

As long as the mass is at the center of curvature of the rail, the two effects cancel exactly so that no net work is done.

The paradox is obtained by failing to consider the torque. Which is why Sophie's post #14 (which happens to use the word "moment" as a synonym for torque) seemed to me as if it should have put the matter to rest.
 
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  • #44
Well, maybe this will do it.

Fantasist, in post 20 and 38 I detailed a method of answering the OP using the simplest mechanism for the constraints. However, I have realized that it is actually possible to answer the OP without using any mechanism for the constraints. The key is to realize that the constraints constrain two degrees of freedom, the position and the angle.

So, if you assume some mechanism which provides specific forces then it must provide at least two forces to correspond to the two constrained degrees of freedom. Alternatively, you can simply consider a net force (by whatever mechanism) and a net torque (again, by whatever mechanism). This satisfies the two degrees of freedom without any specification of the mechanism.

Now, as we move the attachment a small distance you want to consider the work done by the constraints (even though we know that constraints do no work, you want to prove it). So, since there are two constraints we get:

##dW=dW_F+dW_T##

where ##dW_F## is the work done by the net force and ##dW_T## is the work done by the net torque at the constraint. Then:

##dW_F=\mathbf{F}\cdot d\mathbf{s}=m\mathbf{g}\cdot d\mathbf{s} = -mg \sin(\theta) ds##
##dW_T=\tau \; d\theta = mg\; r \sin(\theta) d\theta##

and since ##r\;d\theta = ds## we have ##dW_T=-dW_F## so ##dW=0##.

Your basic mistake in the OP was that you analyzed only ##dW_F## and neglected ##dW_T##. That doesn't provide enough constraints to match what you were trying to do even in an abstract "let's not specify the mechanism" type analysis.

EDIT: I see that jbriggs444 got to the same place that I did, but faster!
 
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  • #45
Thanks for all your replies and sorry for the delay with my response, but I had little time last week and wanted to make sure I consider all arguments as thoroughly as possible. I can actually see where those are coming from, but lastly I can't (yet) see them resolving the paradox due to the issues addressed below:

BruceW said:
The work-energy principle for a point-like mass is:
Work = \int_{t1}^{t2} \vec{F} \cdot \vec{v} dt
And in this case, it is zero, because the only significant mass is the one in the middle, which has zero velocity for all time.
But there is no mass in your equation. What it says is that if you move a certain point of a mechanical system against some force over a certain path (or with a certain velocity for a certain time in your formulation), then this will require a certain work i.e. energy. The emphasis is clearly on the point of application here i.e. the point of constraint in this case, and by assumption this moves.

BruceW said:
How are you defining "a path that changes the state of the system" ? If you mean something like "the path of the connection point of the rod with the rail", then I challenge the physical meaning to this. Why is such a thing physically meaningful? Why would you choose that path, and not any other arbitrary path? For example, you could choose the path of any other point on the rod, and you would get a different answer for your 'work done'.
Well, if you would do the work at any other point of the rod, you would change the constraint; effectively you would have then a rail with a smaller radius and a shorter rod. This would be part of the paradox.


A.T. said:
Fantasist said:
n order to neutralize the gravitational force tangential to the rail, it would take either friction or some obstacle ...
...or two radial forces at \theta\pm\phi which both have non-zero tangential components w.r.t to the radius at \theta.
Only that the forces apply at \theta\pm\phi and not at \theta. Translating the vectors from the former to the latter obviously changes the scenario. Consider the following (slightly simpler) example

https://www.physicsforums.com/attachment.php?attachmentid=68144&stc=1&d=1396201366

you have a disk constrained at its center so that it can only rotate. There are two different radial forces ##F_A## and ##F_B## as indicated by the blue vectors. If you translate these vectors both to a common point and add them there, the sum will there have a tangential component ##F_T## (indicated in green), so the two forces should set the disk in rotation. Are you really suggesting the disk will be rotating in this scenario?

AlephZero said:
To get some sort of a solution to the problem, DaleSpam changed the problem, and made the "point" contact between the rod and the rail into two separated points.
That solution works mathematically, but only in the special case where the mass is at the center of the circle. But as a "real world" solution it is impractical, because as ##\phi \rightarrow 0## the two forces both ##\rightarrow \infty## (positive in opposite directions) but the difference between them stays finite and equal to ##mg## upwards.

Sorry, but for small ##\phi## I make this

##F_A - F_B = - mg/\phi*sin(\theta)##
##F_A + F_B = mg*cos(\theta)## (which is the radial component parallel to the arm)

In any case, ##F_A## and ##F_B## are clearly defined as radial forces, so they can not produce any net force tangential to the rail that could compensate for the gravitational force (see my drawing above).

DaleSpam said:
Using Newton's 2nd law and noting that a=0 we write one expression for the component of the forces parallel to the arm:
## mg \cos(\theta) - F_A \cos(\phi) - F_B \cos(\phi)=0##
and another expression for the component of the forces perpendicular to the arm:
## mg \sin(\theta) + F_A \sin(\phi) - F_B \sin(\phi)=0##

What you have done here is to set up two equations of constraint, one for the net force along the arm and one for the net force perpendicular to the arm (i.e. tangential to the rail). Effectively, this means you can't move anything anymore, and not surprisingly you won't be able to do any work then. The force components you thus get are just the forces of constraint in the material when you have locked everything in place, but this is not the scenario here.
The error you made here is to assume that the condition a=0 imposes a constraint on the motion perpendicular to the arm as well. It doesn't, as the mass can stay in the same place but still rotate.

Generally speaking, you should not bother about forces of constraint here at all. They may be of interest to material scientists, engineers or architects, but are irrelevant for the dynamical changes of a system.

DaleSpam said:
Now, as we move the attachment a small distance you want to consider the work done by the constraints (even though we know that constraints do no work, you want to prove it). So, since there are two constraints we get:

##dW=dW_F+dW_T##

where ##dW_F## is the work done by the net force and ##dW_T## is the work done by the net torque at the constraint. Then:

##dW_F=\mathbf{F}\cdot d\mathbf{s}=m\mathbf{g}\cdot d\mathbf{s} = -mg \sin(\theta) ds##
##dW_T=\tau \; d\theta = mg\; r \sin(\theta) d\theta##

and since ##r\;d\theta = ds## we have ##dW_T=-dW_F## so ##dW=0##.

Your basic mistake in the OP was that you analyzed only ##dW_F## and neglected ##dW_T##. That doesn't provide enough constraints to match what you were trying to do even in an abstract "let's not specify the mechanism" type analysis

I don't understand why you are bringing in the torque here. If you apply a force ##\mathbf{F}## to some point of a rigid body and move this point a distance ##d\mathbf{s}## in the process, then the work associated with this is ##\mathbf{F}\cdot d\mathbf{s}##, irrespectively of how much of this results in a translation of the center of mass and how much in a rotation due the torque associated with the force. If you say the total work done in the process is zero, then ##\mathbf{F}\cdot d\mathbf{s}## must be zero. But this contradicts your equation ##\mathbf{F}\cdot d\mathbf{s}=m\mathbf{g}\cdot d\mathbf{s} = -mg \sin(\theta) ds##.
Like I said already earlier, the important point here is that the work is done at the point of constraint, not directly at the mass.
 
  • #46
@Fantasist

I really don't see where you are going with this. If there is a complete disc (massless etc) supporting the mass then there is no work done in rotating it.
If you use number of spokes, there is still no work done.
Two spokes, progressively closer and closer together, will produce no work. If you say there is something special about your single 'rigid arm' with 'non flexing' shoe on the rail then you would need to say what the limiting case is (i.e. when two spokes start behaving as one, only differently). If you are calculating "for small ϕ" and you are getting a non zero result, you have to conclude that you have got the sums wrong. I don't see that, in any way, you have discovered a 'paradox' - you have just produced an error in your derivation. We have all been there and usually look for our error, rather than cry 'paradox'.
 
  • #47
Fantasist said:
Sorry, but for small ##\phi## I make this

##F_A - F_B = - mg/\phi*sin(\theta)##
##F_A + F_B = mg*cos(\theta)## (which is the radial component parallel to the arm)
The variables ##F_A## and ##F_B## in the equations of posts 20 and 38 and are the magnitudes of vectors which point it different directions. It doesn't make any sense to add them or subtract them this way. If you actually calculate the force vectors ##\mathbf{F_A}## and ##\mathbf{F_B}## and add them then you will see, as AlephZero said, that their sum is mg upwards regardless of the size of ##\phi##, as it must be.

Fantasist said:
In any case, ##F_A## and ##F_B## are clearly defined as radial forces, so they can not produce any net force tangential to the rail that could compensate for the gravitational force (see my drawing above).
I already proved the contrary. This is simply false, so please don't repeat it again. Two radial forces together can indeed provide a net force which can compensate for the gravitational force. In general, a radial force at some point A and a radial force at some point B will usually produce a net force which is not radial at a third point C.

Fantasist said:
What you have done here is to set up two equations of constraint, one for the net force along the arm and one for the net force perpendicular to the arm (i.e. tangential to the rail). Effectively, this means you can't move anything anymore, and not surprisingly you won't be able to do any work then. The force components you thus get are just the forces of constraint in the material when you have locked everything in place, but this is not the scenario here.
The error you made here is to assume that the condition a=0 imposes a constraint on the motion perpendicular to the arm as well. It doesn't, as the mass can stay in the same place but still rotate.
You have this so mixed up I have a hard time knowing where to start.

Newton's 2nd law is ∑F=ma, where ∑F is the sum of all of the forces acting on a body, m is the mass of the body, and a is the acceleration of the center of mass of the body. Because this is a vector equation it does indeed constrain the motion of the center of mass in both the horizontal and vertical direction or equivalently in both the direction parallel to and perpendicular to the arm.

However, the a in the equation is the acceleration of the center of mass. It does not constrain in any way the motion of the rest of the body around the center of mass. In particular, it does not prevent the object, including the massless arm, from rotating around the center of mass. Nothing is being "locked" in place or in any way constrained other than as you specified in the OP.

Fantasist said:
I don't understand why you are bringing in the torque here.
I didn't bring it in, you brought it in during the OP when you constrained the arm to always point perpendicular to the track. The force of gravity exerts a torque about the connection point, therefore the constraint must exert an equal and opposite torque, simply to maintain the angle of the rod.

If you disagree, then consider what would happen if the rod were hinged rather than being a rigid body. A torque is obviously required.

Fantasist said:
If you apply a force ##\mathbf{F}## to some point of a rigid body and move this point a distance ##d\mathbf{s}## in the process, then the work associated with this is ##\mathbf{F}\cdot d\mathbf{s}##, irrespectively of how much of this results in a translation of the center of mass and how much in a rotation due the torque associated with the force. If you say the total work done in the process is zero, then ##\mathbf{F}\cdot d\mathbf{s}## must be zero. But this contradicts your equation ##\mathbf{F}\cdot d\mathbf{s}=m\mathbf{g}\cdot d\mathbf{s} = -mg \sin(\theta) ds##.
Like I said already earlier, the important point here is that the work is done at the point of constraint, not directly at the mass.
You have specified two kinematical constraints: one constraint on the position and one constraint on the direction. A single constraint force is simply incapable of explaining the dynamics of your kinematical constraints. It leads to an underdetermined set of equations. If you disagree then I encourage you to set up the system of equations and see for yourself.

In order to remedy this, you must add an additional dynamical constraint. This can be either in the form of a second force, as shown in posts 20 and 38, or it can be in the form of a torque, as shown in post 44. Either way the work required to move the arm is zero and energy is conserved, as I have shown.
 
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  • #48
AlphaZero in post 4 and Sophie in post 14 both point out the non paradoxical element of the constrained mass.
To constrain the mass you must have torque at point P where the mass connects and therefore friction.
There is no point in saying it's frictionless at this point try building it, whatever materials used there will be a moment or leverage about this point and friction produced.
You might as well insist it levitates.
 
  • #49
Buckleymanor said:
AlphaZero in post 4 and Sophie in post 14 both point out the non paradoxical element of the constrained mass.
To constrain the mass you must have torque at point P where the mass connects and therefore friction.

The existence of a torque does not require friction.
 
  • #50
yeah, and I think this is maybe where Fantasist's main problem is. If the rod was attached to the rail at a point, then the mass cannot be suspended in equilibrium, because the total torque (or moments, I never know the right terminology for this) around the mass, cannot add to zero, while also having the linear forces add to zero.

But, even if the connection point was just finite in size, then it would be possible for the mass to be suspended. For a simpler example, think of a shelf (which is very similar to this problem, where the rod is horizontal). If the shelf was simply attached to the wall at a point, the shelf cannot be in equilibrium. But if you have a shelf bracket, then it is possible to balance the forces and have zero torque. This is possible because the attachment is not just at a point.
 
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